1. Economic growth can be illustrated by:

A. Moving a point along a production possibilities curve

b. An upward shift in the production possibilities curve

B. Shift to the left of the production possibilities curve

2. Personal income is:

A. The total income of an individual, expressed in kind and cash and obtained from wages and other additional sources

b. Wages, bank payments on deposits, as well as money borrowed

V. The annual value of goods and services consumed by an individual during a calendar period

3. Inflation is a tax:

A. Per annual gross national income

b. For the use of loan capital;

B. Responsible for holders of money and other equivalents of value

4. Salary is taken into account when calculating:

A. GNP using the expenditure flow method

B. GNP using the income stream method

V. GNP using the optimal transfer payment method.

5. The source of personal income is:

A. Wages, rent and transfer payments, income from the use of personal property

b. Salaries and bank loans

V. Income received from the placement of securities

6. Built-in stabilizers include:

A. VAT and excise taxes

B. Income taxes and unemployment benefits

V. Environmental and land taxes

7. During the period of economic recovery, the following is observed:

A. Increase in nominal output

B. Increase in real output

V. Increase in real income of the population

A. Marginalists

b. Early mercantilists

B. Late mercantilists

9. The subject of macroeconomics research is:

A. Level of personal income of the population

b. Market of goods and services

B. The unemployment rate in the country

1. Tests on the topic “Macroeconomics as a science.”

1. The features of the national economy include:

a) the presence of planned state regulation of the economy;

b) the presence of a mixed economy system with market dominance;

c) the predominance of private ownership of economic resources;

d) the presence of general “rules of the economic game”;

2. The necessary elements of the general “rules of the economic game” include:

a) unified economic legislation, national monetary system, national financial system, low unemployment;

B) unified economic legislation, stable national currency, national financial system;

c) stable economic legislation, a common system of foreign economic borders, the presence of a common economic center, low inflation;

d) unified economic legislation, a common monetary system, a common system of foreign economic borders, the presence of a common idea about the effective economic policy of the state;

e) there is no correct answer.

3. Can the economy of any state be considered as a national economy:

a) yes, since every state exists within a certain time and territorial framework;

b) no, since within the borders of the state economic entities are not always closely interconnected;

c) no, since the state can differentiate its attitude towards economic entities depending on the form of ownership;

D) yes, since the state always pursues a general policy regarding those economic entities that are located on its territory;

e) no, since the state can pursue anti-people policies and act not in the interests of the nation.

4. The general system of economic protection as a feature of the national economy presupposes:

a) the presence of a national currency;

B) the presence of a common center that regulates foreign economic relations;

c) the formation of a progressive enterprise taxation system in relation to the private sector of the economy;

d) the predominance of state property and private property;

e) there is no correct answer.

5. The general economic environment as a sign of the national economy presupposes:

A) the presence of unified economic legislation;

b) the predominance of the public sector of the economy over the private sector;

c) concluding only trade agreements with other countries of the world;

e) there is no correct answer.

6. Imagine that all resources in a mixed economy are used in such a way that increasing the production of one product without technological changes is possible only by reducing the production of another. An economist would define this as a sign:

A) efficiency;

b) inefficiency;

c) imperfections of market regulation;

d) insufficient government intervention in the economy.

7. A characteristic feature of a modern market system is:

A) a significant number of buyers and sellers in all markets;

b) absolutely free access to any economic information;

c) the decreasing role of the state in the economy;

d) lack of further development of division of labor processes;

e) there is no correct answer.

8. The main feature of a mixed economy system can be considered:

a) the predominance of private ownership of economic resources;

b) large-scale use of modern information technologies;

C) delegation of traditional social security functions to market institutions;

d) globalization of economic life;

e) there is no correct answer.

9. The instruments of state regulation of the economy do not include:

a) regulation of competition;

b) monetary regulation;

c) establishment of taxes;

D) formation of management structures at enterprises of various forms of ownership;

e) there is no correct answer.

10. Russian Economy:

A) over the past 30 years it has been developing as a mixed economic system;

b) is still largely a centrally planned economic system;

c) is practically independent from the economies of other countries;

d) the correct answer is indicated in points a, c;

e) there is no correct answer.

2. Tests on the topic: “Macroeconomic indicators in the system of national accounts.”

1. What does not apply to the functions (purposes) of indicators of the national economy:

a) determination of trends in the development of the economy as a whole;

b) measurement of total production volumes;

c) formation of the information base necessary for the development and implementation of the state’s economic policy;

D) comparison of the levels of economic development of different countries;

2. Which of the following indicators allows repeated counting:

c) national income;

D) gross output;

d) final product?

3. Indicators of national production (GNP, GDP, ND) are:

a) absolutely complete characteristics of the economic state of the country;

b) the main general indicators of the performance of the national economy;

c) the main indicators of the quantity and quality of goods and services consumed by society;

D) indicators that reflect absolutely all economic transactions carried out in the country over a certain period of time;

e) there is no correct answer.

4. To calculate personal income, it is necessary to subtract from national income:

a) indirect taxes on business;

B) retained earnings of corporations;

c) individual taxes;

i) dividends paid by corporations;

e) the correct answer is indicated in points a, d.

5. The value of nominal GDP is known. What other indicator do you need to know to calculate the real volume of GDP:

a) the total amount of direct and indirect taxes;

b) the volume of national income;

B) price index;

d) volume of transfer payments;

e) the correct answer is indicated in points a, c?

6. What does not serve as a motive for accumulating savings for the income recipient:

a) refusal of current consumption in order to improve it in the future;

B) creation of an insurance fund;

c) equalization of consumption over time;

d) accumulation of funds for the purchase of durable goods;

e) there is no correct answer?

7. Gross investments exceed net investments by the amount of capital investments that are directed:

a) for the reconstruction of outdated equipment;

B) to replace retired fixed capital;

c) to the non-production sphere;

d) for major repairs.

8. Which expression correctly reflects a growing economic system:

a) Retirement of funds = Introduction of funds;

B) Disposal of funds< Введение фондов;

c) Gross investment - Net investment;

d) Gross investment< Чистые инвестиции.

9. What does not belong to the functions of investing:

a) increasing the production potential of society;

b) creation of a material basis for solving social issues;

C) equalization of income of certain groups of the population;

d) materialization of the achievements of science and technology?

10. Can depreciation charges in real economic practice act as a source of net investment:

A) no, since they always equal the amount of retired fixed capital;

b) yes, since depreciation charges are always greater than the retired fixed capital;

c) no, if net investment is greater than gross;

e) yes, if depreciation charges are greater than the actual disposal of fixed capital.

11. What does not belong to the methods of implementing the investment policy of the state:

a) changes in the structure of public investment;

B) encouraging the population to invest in durable goods;

c) providing benefits to private business entities investing in certain areas of the national economy;

d) establishment of administrative restrictions regarding certain areas of investment;

e) there is no correct answer?

12. Can citizens’ incomes after taxes increase and exceed the amount of income before taxes:

a) no, since taxes are not related to the redistribution of income;

B) yes, if transfer payments are greater than individual taxes;

c) no, since transfer payments are always less than individual taxes;

d) yes, if the share of consumption in national income increases?

3. Tests on the topic: “Macroeconomic instability.”

1. “_______________ of the volume of national production is the most desirable state for any country.” Choose the missing word(s):

a) positive dynamics;

B) steady, rapid increase;

c) reproduction;

d) non-cyclical fluctuations;

e) eliminating cyclic fluctuations.

2. Economic fluctuations are:

a) different values ​​of increases in national production volumes over a certain period of time;

b) a decrease in the degree of economic activity associated with changes in the macroeconomic situation;

C) unevenness, periodic multidirectional changes in macroeconomic indicators;

d) changes in the macroeconomic policy of the state, affecting the results of the national economy;

e) lack of necessary correspondence between the main macroeconomic indicators.

3. The economic cycle is:

a) the period of time during which multidirectional changes in the main macroeconomic indicators are observed;

b) consistent passage of the national economy through all stages of positive economic dynamics;

C) a set of certain states of economic activity that are periodically repeated in the national economy;

d) there is no correct answer.

4. Which sequence of stages of the economic cycle is most typical:

a) rise - depression - revival - decline;

B) rise - decline - depression - recovery;

c) recovery - depression - recession - recovery;

d) recession - depression - recovery - recovery?

5. Which of the cycles presented in economic science are most recognized:

a) short-term;

b) medium-term;

B) long-term.

6. Who is usually given primacy in the development of the theory of “long waves” in economics:

a) I. Schumpeter;

b) M. Tugan-Baranovsky;

B) N. Kondratiev;

d) I. Fischer;

e) D. Ricardo.

7. In what phase of the economic cycle is the highest level of employment observed:

b) depression;

c) revival;

D) rise.

8. What does not apply to possible causes of economic fluctuations:

a) the frequency of occurrence of significant technical innovations;

B) change in the number of people with higher education;

d) major political events;

e) achieving scientific and technological progress;

9. Which sectors of the economy react more strongly than others to a decrease in production volumes to an economic downturn:

A) heavy engineering, agriculture, construction;

b) production of agricultural machinery, food industry, communication services;

c) machine tool manufacturing, production of refrigerators, production of agricultural machinery;

d) production of mining equipment, food industry, feed production;

e) light industry, mining, construction of production facilities;

f) there is no correct answer.

10. Types of countercyclical government policies include:

a) expansion policy;

b) policy of containment;

d) integration policy;

e) antimonopoly policy;

f) the correct answer is indicated in points a, b;

G) the correct answer is indicated in points a, b, d.

11. Policies aimed at increasing jobs are:

A) expansion policy;

b) policy of containment;

c) open economy policy;

d) integration policy;

e) antimonopoly policy;

f) there is no correct answer.

12. When economists talk about “full employment,” they mean:

a) absolute absence of unemployment;

B) the presence of a very small number of unemployed;

c) absence of cyclical unemployment;

d) full participation of the working population in social production.

13. What type of unemployment is considered imminent:

a) structural, frictional, cyclic;

B) structural, frictional;

c) frictional, cyclic;

d) cyclical?

14. What level of unemployment is currently considered natural (full employment) in developed countries of the world:

15. A. Okun’s Law establishes:

a) the degree of reduction in GDP depending on the excess of the natural rate of unemployment;

b) the degree of influence of the general economic downturn on the unemployment rate in the country;

C) the relationship between changes in GDP and changes in the level of cyclical unemployment;

d) the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate.

16. The negative consequences of unemployment do not include:

a) underproduction of GDP;

B) reduction in the level of qualifications of the employee;

c) reducing the level of consumption in individuals;

d) psychological and social costs;

e) there is no correct answer.

17. What is the official unemployment rate currently registered in Russia:

B) from 5 to 10%;

c) more than 10%?

18. People can become part of the unemployed:

a) only if they were previously part of the employed population;

b) only when previously outside the economically active population;

c) only if they were previously part of the economically active population;

D) previously being part of the employed population or part of the economically inactive population;

e) there is no correct answer.

19. Signs of unemployed status do not include:

a) job search;

b) ability to work;

c) desire to work;

d) compliance with certain age parameters;

e) presence of dependents;

E) the correct answer is indicated in points d, e;

g) there is no correct answer.

20. Which of the directions of the state’s economic policy can have a direct impact on increasing the number of jobs:

a) anti-inflationary policy;

b) strengthening state control over state-owned enterprises;

C) stimulation of small business;

d) development of local self-government;

e) there is no correct answer?

21. In Russia at the moment, the number of unemployed is officially determined:

A) as the number of persons with unemployed status registered by employment services;

b) by conducting special sample surveys of households;

c) through expert assessments conducted by sociological organizations;

d) as the number of persons dismissed from enterprises during the corresponding period;

e) there is no correct answer.

22. Part-time employment is:

a) the presence of unemployed people in the economically active population;

b) the excess of cyclical unemployment over frictional unemployment;

c) the presence of unemployed among able-bodied family members;

D) part-time work due to the inability to find adequate full-time work or a temporary reduction in demand for products;

e) the correct answer is indicated in points c, d.

4. Tests in the discipline “Macroeconomics”

Answers to all modules (for the control test) in the subject of economics.

What is the main purpose of material production?
the fullest possible satisfaction of public needs

What type of communication are economic relations based on?
"subject - thing - thing - subject"

What types of organizational and economic relations are divided into?
all of the above are true

What is the difference between organizational-economic and socio-economic relations?
organizational and economic relations are common elements of the economy of all countries, socio-economic relations are specific

What are the economic connections between large social groups, individual teams and members of society called?
socio-economic relations

What function of economic theory is to scientifically substantiate the economic policy of the state, to identify the principles and methods of rational management?
practical

The founders of political economy are
U. Petit, A. Smith, D. Ricardo

Which of the following are factors of production?
all of the above are true

What is the subject of economic theory?
economic relations

What types of socio-economic relations are divided into?
all of the above are true

How is the social product distributed under the dominance of private property?
on labor and capital

What function of economic theory means scientific prediction of the course of scientific, technical and socio-economic development for the foreseeable future?
prognostic

What is the difference between political economy and economics?
the main sphere of political economy is production, economics is the market

Which of the following is a basic feature of human needs?
limitlessness

Which definition of the subject of economic theory is the most complete?
economic theory studies the use of rare economic goods to satisfy people's needs

What is the name of the graph that illustrates the problem of choice in economics?
production possibilities curve

What is the subject of political economy?
production, distribution, exchange and consumption of material goods and services

In what year did the first economics textbook appear?
in 1890

What is meant by economic efficiency?
cost-benefit ratio

Which of the following refers to types of reproduction?
all of the above are true

What is meant by opportunity costs?
costs that must be sacrificed to obtain a certain amount of a given product

What function of economic theory is a comprehensive study of economic phenomena and their internal essence, which allows us to discover the laws of development of the national economy?
educational

What formula expresses the relationship between two goods?
"thing - thing"

What relationship does the law of supply establish?
direct relationship between changes in market price and changes in market supply

Which of the following refers to the factors that give rise to government prices?
all of the above are true

Which of the following affects the elasticity of supply?
all of the above are true

Within which economic system are all problems solved through centralized regulation?
command economy

Which of the following does not apply to direct methods of government regulation?
tax regulation

Which of the following is a function of money?
all of the above are true

What does freedom of choice mean?
the ability of owners of material resources to dispose of them at their own discretion

What is inflation?
depreciation of money, i.e. increase in the amount of money paid per unit of goods

What exchange rate shows how many units of foreign currency can be obtained per unit of domestic currency?
motto

What stage of development of non-cash payments does plastic money belong to?
second

Within what economic system are all economic problems solved through the interaction of private capital and the state?
mixed economy

What goods are characterized by a direct relationship between the price of one of them and the demand for another?
for interchangeable goods

Under what condition is the market for a particular product in equilibrium?
if demand equals supply

Who theoretically substantiated the need for state regulation of a market economy?
D. Keynes

What are the general conditions that ensure the effective functioning of market relations called?
market infrastructure

Which of the following is not one of the consequences of introducing a price ceiling?
expansion of goods production

Which of the following is the main factor influencing supply?
the price of the product

What does free enterprise mean?
independent solution by the manufacturer of production organization problems

Which of the following are disadvantages of a free market economy?
all of the above are true

Which of the following is not a non-price supply factor?
the price of the product

Within which economic system is freedom of enterprise and choice realized to the maximum extent?
market economy

Which of the following systems is the most effective?
market economy

What does the law of demand establish?
inverse relationship between price changes and changes in market demand

Using this graph, determine the type of price elasticity of demand

absolute inelasticity

What is the name of the price at which the quantity demanded coincides with the quantity supplied?
equilibrium

Which of the following businesses is not a sole proprietorship?
machine-building plant

Which of the following does not apply to the external environmental conditions of the company?
planning

Which of the following are factors affecting stock prices?
all of the above are true

Which of the following are disadvantages of small business?
all of the above are true

What formula is used to determine the bond price?
Bond rate = Market price / Face value ´ 100%

What is the name given to uncertainty about a firm's performance?
risk

Which of the following is not a fundamental property of bonds?
no final maturity date

Which of the following industries occupies the largest share in the structure of small businesses?
trade and catering

Which of the following does not apply to the internal environment of a company?
competition system

In which industry does small business usually fail to develop?
in mechanical engineering

What organizational and legal form of an enterprise (firm) is characterized by joint liability for the results of economic activity?
general partnership

What does the consumer strive for in the market?
to utility maximization

What is the biggest advantage a small firm has over a large organization?
quick adaptation to changes in consumer demands

Which of the following countries provides the greatest government support for small businesses?
in USA

What is the name of the pattern according to which, as consumption of a good increases, total utility increases and marginal utility decreases?
law of diminishing marginal utility

What is the main goal of entrepreneurial activity?
Receiving a profit

Which of the following is not a factor in the expansion of a firm?
decrease in profits

What happens to real incomes when prices fall?
increase

Which of the following refers to the main ways of government support for small businesses?
all of the above are true

Which of the following does not apply to the characteristics of Russian small businesses?
single-product development model

Who is the owner of the joint stock company?
shareholders

What is meant by the marginal utility of a good?
beneficial effect of consuming an additional unit of a good

A map of indifference curves is constructed
only for a specific consumer

A sign of what type of association is the association of firms at various stages of the technological process?
vertical integration

If the consumer seeks to increase the consumer effect, then he will measure
utility of goods and their prices

Which of the following is not a fixed cost?
transport services

Which of the following is not a type of wholesale trade?
direct distribution of goods from producers to direct consumers

Which of the following types of markets provides direct satisfaction of needs for consumer goods?
market of goods and services

What is real wage?
the amount of goods and services that a worker can purchase with his salary

What is the firm's normal profit?
wages or income of the entrepreneur

What marketing strategy should be used to reduce the firm's dependence on a particular product line?
diversification strategy

Which of the following are factors influencing the demand for labor?
all of the above are true

How do ground rent and rent relate to each other?
rent is higher than ground rent by the amount of loan interest paid for the temporary use of capital

Which of the following is a profit function?
all of the above are true

The reason for the formation of what type of rent is the monopoly of private ownership of land?
absolute rent

What is the process of enterprise management called?
management

Which of the following is true of governance structures?
all of the above are true

Which of the following are benefits of stock trading?
all of the above are true

What is the interest rate?
fee for using money

How do the mass of loan capital and the money supply relate to each other?
the mass of loan capital is greater than the money supply

What is the name of the activity associated with the direct delivery of goods to end consumers?
retail

Which of the following refers to the basic principles of company management?
all of the above are true

Which of the following is not a factor in profit growth?
rising production costs

With negative economies of scale, average and marginal costs
increase faster than production volume increases

Under what conditions does money turn into real capital?
when using them to purchase production resources

How do the rates of accumulation of loan and real capital compare with each other?
the rate of accumulation of loan capital is higher than the rate of accumulation of real

Which of the following is not a major element of an overall marketing strategy?
accounting of bank interest rates

Which of the following definitions reflects the essence of marketing?
is a system of production management through market research in order to satisfy customer needs and maximize profits

Which of the following is not a variable cost?
director's salary

Which of the following is not a factor of positive economies of scale?
decrease in management efficiency

Which of the following is not one of the barriers to entry into an industry under conditions of a pure monopoly?
product differentiation

Which of the following is not a prerequisite for imperfect competition?
product uniformity

What are the directions of non-price competition?
all of the above are true

Which of the following is not a firm's behavior in the short run?
maintaining the company at any cost

Non-price competition is underway
based on the quality characteristics of the product

What is the main reason for the predominant use of non-price competition by oligopolistic firms?
impossibility of quickly duplicating changes by competitors

Which of the following structures has the highest barriers to entry into the industry?
in pure monopoly

Which of the following is not true of imperfect competition?
pure competition

What is the name of the condition that requires the distribution of resources between firms in order to obtain the range of products that society needs?
efficiency of resource distribution

Which of the following is not a sign of oligopoly?
no barriers to entry into the industry

Which of the following market structures produces the lowest prices?
perfect competition

Which of the following refers to methods of non-price competition?
all of the above are true

Which of the following pricing models is typical for uncoordinated oligopolies?
kinked demand curve

Which of the following is a sign of a monopoly market only?
one seller

What is the situation of domination of a market by one buyer called?
monopsony

Which of the following industries is not an oligopoly?
Agriculture

In the long run, a monopolist as opposed to a perfect competitor
can prevent competitors from entering

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a natural monopoly?
effectiveness only under state control

What is the main reason for a monopoly firm to obtain economic profit in the long run?
high barriers to entry into the industry

If gross income is maximum, then marginal income
equal to zero

Which of the following is not a barrier to entry into an oligopolistic industry?
product differentiation

Which of the following is a characteristic of monopolistic competition?
product differentiation

What type of monopoly does the patent system belong to?
to legal monopolies

How long will the influx of firms into a competitive industry continue in the long run?
as long as economic profit is greater than zero

What is the criterion for imperfect competition?
negative slope of the demand curve

What is meant by marginal propensity to consume?
increase in consumption per unit increase in income

Under what conditions does frictional unemployment occur?
when you need time to find a new job

The unemployment rate is the ratio (in percentage) of the number of unemployed
to the working-age population

Which of the following is not a qualitative indicator of economic growth?
GNP growth per capita

What is the name of the coefficient that reveals the relationship between the increase in income and induced investments?
accelerator

Which of the following is not a non-price factor of aggregate demand?
technology changes

Which of the following is not a phase of the business cycle?
expectation

Which phase of the economic cycle is characterized by rising unemployment, inflation, and declining sales?
a crisis

Which of the following is an indicator of economic growth?
all of the above are true

What does the multiplier effect show?
change in income when investment changes

Which of the following is one of the consequences of a horizontal shift in the demand curve?
increase or decrease in national output at a constant price level

How are infrastructure development and economic growth interconnected?
there is a direct relationship between them

What is inflation?
decrease in purchasing power of money

Which phase of the economic cycle is characterized by full employment, rising prices and income levels?
climb

What is the name for the phenomenon in which a decrease in aggregate demand does not lead to a decrease in the general price level?
ratchet effect

Which of the following is not a positive effect of increasing economic growth?
increased burden on the environment

During a period of rising inflation, the interest rate
increases as the purchasing power of money decreases

What is the main factor of economic growth in Keynesian theory?
investment demand

If we subtract corporate income taxes, retained earnings, and social security contributions from national income, and then add net transfer payments, we get
personal income

What is the net national product?
GNP minus depreciation

What does the concept of “net exports” mean when calculating GNP?
difference between exports and imports in a given year

Which of the following types of infrastructure is typical for modern Russia?
lagging

What type of infrastructure is characterized by the degree of infrastructure development matching the needs of the economy?
simultaneous

What is the combination of specific economic values ​​into aggregate ones called?
aggregation

What combination of economic factors characterizes supply (cost) inflation?
increase in unemployment rate and general price level

Government debt is the debt that a government has accumulated as a result of borrowing money to finance past
budget deficits

What is the central idea of ​​Keynesian government regulation?
increase in employment due to growth in effective demand

What is the name of the policy of “automatic” manipulation of government spending and taxes through built-in stabilizers?
non-discretionary fiscal policy

Which of the following are characteristics of a market regulator?
generation of externalities

What types of government loans are allocated by location?
internal and external

What is the combination of a crisis decline in production with inflation called?
stagflation

Which of the following refers to the maximum permissible functions of the state?
regulation of social relations

Under what conditions does a government budget deficit exist?
if government spending exceeds revenue

Which of the following is not a way to improve the efficiency of budget policy?
closed formation of budgets at all levels for the population

What is the name of the method and mechanism for organizing and streamlining the national economy?
macroeconomic regulator

Which management system is characterized by direct management of enterprises from the center?
for administrative command system

Expansionary fiscal policy implies
increasing government spending and reducing taxation

What is the mixed type of macroeconomic regulator based on?
on the synthesis of market and state management of the national economy

Which of the following is a factor that influences both macroeconomic demand and macroeconomic supply?
market price level

Which graph illustrates the relationship between changes in the income tax rate and changes in budget revenues?
Laffer curve

What is the name of the graph depicting inequality in the distribution of income in a society?
Lorenz curve

What types of government loans are distinguished by types of profitability?
interest and winnings

Which of the following applies to direct taxes?
all of the above are true

A contractionary fiscal policy presupposes
increasing taxation and reducing government spending

What is the government's spending and tax policies called?
fiscal policy

Under what conditions does a government budget surplus exist?
if government revenues exceed expenditures

Which of the following is a function of market prices?
all of the above are true

Which of the following is a consequence of the crowding-out effect that results from increased government spending?
all of the above are true

What is the name given to the policy of deliberately manipulating government spending and taxes?
discretionary fiscal policy

Which of the following is one of the main objectives of tax reform?
all of the above are true

What is the state's protection of a national commodity producer from foreign competition called?
protectionism

What is the name given to the quantity of imported goods that a country receives in exchange for a given quantity of exported goods?
terms of trade

How will the prices of exports and imports change after the devaluation of the national currency, all other things being equal?
for imports will increase, and for exports will decrease

What formula is used to determine total costs?
consumer spending + investment spending + government spending on goods purchases + net exports

Which of the following is an element of the current account?
all of the above are true

The results of the country's participation in international economic relations are reflected
in its balance of payments

In which of the following countries is the use of export duties prohibited by the Constitution?
in USA

At what stage of production development did the world market emerge?
at the industrial stage

Which of the following principles is used in compiling the balance of payments?
double entry principle

Which of the following is one of the reasons why a country participates in international trade?
all of the above are true

Which of the following is one of the negative consequences of protectionism?
all of the above are true

What is the name of the formation and development of a unified network of economic relations covering the entire global economic space?
globalization

Which body in the country carries out monetary policy?
central bank

Which of the following is a limiting factor for the export multiplier?
marginal propensity to import

What is the rate at which the currency of one country is exchanged for the currency of another country is called?
currency (exchange) rate

How will the prices of exports and imports change after the revaluation of the national currency, all other things being equal?
exports will increase, and imports will decrease

Which of the following is the most important reason for differences in relative prices of goods in the Heckscher-Ohlin theory?
endowment of countries with factors of production

What is the reason for Leontief's paradox?
US imports are more capital intensive than US exports

What is the relationship between export growth and national income growth called?
export multiplier

What is the basis of the modern world economy?
internationalization of production

Which of the following refers to the forms of international economic relations?
all of the above are true

Which of the following refers to the goals of foreign trade liberalization?
all of the above are true

What is the basis of trade between countries?
international division of labor

What model was the basis for the famous “Leontief paradox”?
input-output model

What are the main ways to attract foreign direct investment into the Russian economy?
all of the above are true

The “Rise” phase of the cycle is characterized by:
investment activity increases, new contracts are concluded

Average costs are:...
unit costs

Frictional unemployment is:
associated with the desire of workers to find a more suitable place of work

The balance of payments is:
a) a systematic record of the results of all transactions between residents of one country;
b) current account balance plus capital balance;
c) export revenues minus import costs minus net transfers abroad;
d) proceeds from the sale of assets minus expenses for the purchase of assets abroad.
a) b)

According to D.M. For Keynes, the demand for money is determined by the following motives:
1) transactional;
2) precautions;
3) necessity;
4) speculative.
1) 2) 4)

Factors influencing demand include:
1) consumer income;
2) expected future prices;
3) available technologies;

1) 2)

According to the theory of W. Rostow, the following economic systems are distinguished: ...
High mass consumption society

A structural crisis is:
spans multiple economic cycles

Demand is elastic if:...
a percentage change in price results in a larger change in volume

The Jamaican currency system originated:
in 1976

The saturation of the economy with money is:
M2 to GDP ratio

National income:
net national income minus indirect taxes

Currency reforms include:
a) nullification;
b) devaluation;
c) denomination;
d) deflationary policy.
a B C)

Inflation is:
a) increase in GDP;
b) increase in national income;
c) an increase in the general price level in the country;
d) decrease in the purchasing power of the population.
c) d)

The theories of the essence of money include the theories:
1) metal;
2) nominalistic;
3) quantitative;
4) real.
1) 2) 3)

Cash flows between entities in a modern market economy include:
1) taxes;
2) subsidies;
3) government services;
4) scholarships
1) 2) 3)

Types of trade policies include:
a) tariffs;
b) quotas;
c) non-tariff barriers;
d) tax rates.
a B C)

Import is:
goods and services purchased by residents of a particular country from foreigners

The break-even point shows:
1) when variable costs are covered;
2) when fixed costs are covered;
3) when fixed and variable costs are covered;
4) from what moment the company begins to make a profit.
3) 4)

Real income is:
goods and services purchased with estimated income

The following theories of the origin of money are distinguished:
1) rationalistic;
2) evolutionary;
3) traditional;
4) non-traditional.
1) 2)

Monetary policy methods include:
a) open market operations;
b) issuing bonds on its own behalf;
c) refinancing of credit institutions;
d) setting tax rates.
a B C)

Gross national product:
is the market value of goods and services produced using a country's domestic resources

Factors of production include:
1) labor;
2) capital;
3) venture financing;
4) earth
1) 2) 4)

The market structure by economic purpose includes:
1) commodity market;
2) financial market;
3) labor market;
4) human resource market.
1) 2) 3)

Rational employment is:
characterized by the correspondence between available available positions and the existing structure of employees

The monetary system is:
form of organization of currency relations, enshrined in law

Oligopoly is:...
when the number of firms in the market is small, each company must take into account the reaction of competitors when forming a pricing policy

Price factors of demand include:
a) interest rate effect;
b) wealth effect;
c) the effect of import purchases;
D) changes in government spending.
Please indicate the correct answer.
a B C)

Factors of economic growth include:
a) labor;
b) land;
c) capital;
d) population.
a B C)

Factors influencing supply include:
1) consumer income;
2) expected future prices;
3) available technologies;
4) fixed assets of production.
3) 4)

Price factors of supply include:
change in labor prices

The properties of money include:
1) divisibility;
2) portability;
3) recognition;
4) legality.
1) 2) 3)

A natural monopoly is a situation:...
when a single firm serves the entire market

Bad money includes:
1) gold coins;
2) gold bars;
3) credit cards;
4) electronic money
3) 4)

Credit money includes:
1) gold bars;
2) paper money;
3) checks;
4) deposits.
3) 4)

The functions of money include:
1) cost meters;
2) world money;
3) a means of diversification;
4) means of payment.
1) 2) 4)

The following market models are distinguished:
1) liberal;
2) socially oriented;
3) democratic;
4) socialist.
1) 2)

The properties of full-fledged money are:
1) correspondence of the face value to the real value;
2) not subject to impairment;
3) impossibility of physical use;
4) there is no correct answer.
1) 2)

Factors affecting macroeconomic equilibrium include:
a) government procurement;
b) net exports;
c) “ratchet effect”
d) anti-inflationary policy.
a B C)

Transcript

1 Macroeconomics test with answers Page 1 of 18 Macroeconomics TOPIC 1. SOCIAL REPRODUCTION 1. The subject of macroeconomics research is: *a) the level of unemployment in the country; b) establishment of relative prices on the factor of production market; c) determining the optimal volume of production under conditions of perfect competition. 2. Objectively existing stable cause-and-effect relationships between the phenomena of economic life are: a) economic categories; *b) economic laws; c) economic models. 3. The main subjects in macroeconomics are: a) the central bank; *b) households; c) industry; d) market for goods and services. 4. What method of analysis is used when studying citizens’ incomes in conditions of inflation: a) statistical; *b) comparative; c) normative. 5. A macroeconomic model is created to: a) reflect the ideal functioning of the economy; b) an accurate reflection of the processes occurring in the economy; *c) identification of fundamental economic ties; d) analysis of the influence of endogenous variables on exogenous ones; 6. In normative macroeconomic analysis, the following is carried out: a) theoretical justification of the model of behavior of an economic entity; b) studying the results of the impact of the behavior of economic entities on changes in macroeconomic indicators;

2 *c) development of recommendations on the use of macroeconomic policy instruments; d) empirical verification of the correctness of theoretical hypotheses. 7. Using the method of scientific abstraction when developing a macroeconomic model: a) makes the model more consistent with reality; *b) makes it easier to solve the problem; c) leads to taking into account all exogenous parameters. 8. The mental decomposition of phenomena into their component parts and the isolation of its individual aspects in order to identify what is specific in them that distinguishes them from each other is: a) an economic experiment; b) synthesis; *c) analysis; d) deduction. 9. If the economy is studied as an integral system, then this is an analysis: a) microeconomic; *b) macroeconomic; c) positive; d) normative. 10. Economic theory includes in the scope of its study: a) only market economy; b) all systems except the planned economy; c) all systems except transition economies; *d) all economic systems. 12. The general level of prices and unemployment in the economic system is studied in the course of: a) microeconomics; *b) macroeconomics; c) positive economic theory; d) normative economic theory. 13. the use of assumptions in economic analysis: a) makes the model more realistic; b) increases the number of questions that must be included in the analysis; c) changes the internal logic of the theory or model; *d) makes it easier to solve the problem. 14. If a country uses all human, capital and natural resources, then more of any product... a) can only be produced by private entrepreneurs, but not

3 by state; b) can be produced only by reducing the production of any other goods; c) can be produced only with a general decrease in prices; *d) cannot be produced. 15. Indicate the correct sequence of stages of the reproduction process: a) exchange, consumption, compensation and accumulation, production; b) compensation and accumulation, exchange, consumption, production; c) compensation and accumulation, consumption, exchange, production; *d) production, exchange, accumulation, consumption. 16. The term “reproduction” was first used by: a) Adam Smith; *b) F. Quesnay; c) A. Marshall; d) P. Samuelson. 17. Who is not a Nobel Prize laureate in economics: a) Paul Samuelson; b) Vasily Leontyev; *c) John Maynard Keynes; 18. In the model of the circulation of income and expenses in the national economy: a) there is a productive class, a sterile class and a class of owners; b) all social production is divided into two divisions: the production of means of production and the production of consumer goods; c) the main link is the state; *d) the movement of income and expenses is mediated by the resource market and the goods market. 19. Pareto - effective is a state of the economy in which: *a) it is impossible to increase the degree of satisfaction of the needs of at least one person without worsening the position of another member of society; b) it is possible to increase the degree of satisfaction of the needs of at least one person without worsening the situation of another member of society; c) the largest volume of production of goods and services is achieved; 20. Stock in macroeconomics is: a) an indicator measured as a quantity at the moment; *b) consumer property; *c) the number of unemployed;

4 21. Simple reproduction is: a) the resumption of production at a reduced rate; b) resumption of production on an expanded scale; *c) resumption of reproduction in unchanged quantities; 22. The extensive type of reproduction is characterized by: *a) an increase in production capacity as a result of an increase in the number of production factors used; b) increasing production potential as a result of improving equipment and technology; c) an increase in production capacity as a result of an increase in the number of production factors used and the improvement of equipment and technology. 23. Intensive factors include: a) expansion of production capacity; *b) use of scientific and technical progress achievements in production; c) an increase in the number of people employed. 24. Which economic school first analyzed the reproduction and distribution of income in agriculture: a) mercantilism; *b) physiocrats; c) Marxism; d) Keynesianism; e) marginalism. TOPIC 2. ECONOMIC STRUCTURE 1. The degree of effectiveness of the actual structure depends on the following factors; *a) the level of monopolization of production and the development of the social division of labor; b) the degree of government intervention in the economy; c) the level of development of the labor market. 2. Economic rent is: a) transfer income; *b) the excess of income over its opportunity cost. 3. What factors does the price of land depend on: *a) the amount of rent b) the demand for land; c) land supply;

5 4. The annual rate is $200, the interest rate is 5%. Determine the price of land. a) 8000 dollars; b) 6000 dollars; *c) $4,000. 5. What type of rent is associated with differences in the natural quality of land: *a) absolute rent; b) differential rent 1; c) differential rent 2; d) differential rent 1 and 2; d) all types of rent. 7. What is the reason for the emergence of differential rent: a) monopoly of private ownership of land; b) the presence of lands of different fertility and location; c) limited land; *d) monopoly on land as an economic object. 8. What is the reason for the existence of absolute land rent? *a) monopoly of private land ownership; b) monopoly on land as an economic object; c) the presence of lands of different quality; d) limited land; e) inelasticity of land supply. 9. Who appropriates differential rent 1: *a) the owner of the land; b) tenant; c) state; d) local authorities. 10. What is economic rent: a) transfer income; *b) the excess of income over its opportunity cost. 11. What is the difference between rent and rent: a) they are the same thing; b) this is the sum of absolute and differential rent; *c) this is a payment for the use of capital invested in a given site; d) rent includes, in addition to rent, the amount for the use of capital in the form of buildings and structures.

6 Page 3 of 18 TOPIC 3. FUNCTIONAL FORMS OF SOCIAL PRODUCT. MACROECONOMIC INDICATORS. 1. What is gross domestic product (GDP)? a) the sum of all goods and services produced; b) the sum of all goods and services sold; c) the sum of all finished goods and services; *d) the market value of all final goods and services. 2. Gross domestic product is measured: a) in basic prices; b) at producer prices; *c) at market prices; d) in export prices. 3. Nominal GNP represents the cost of goods and services, measured: *a) at current prices; b) in real prices; c) in prices of the base period; d) in prices of the previous period. 4. The GNP deflator: *a) is equal to the ratio of nominal GNP to real GNP; b) equal to the ratio of real GNP to nominal GNP; c) decreases as inflation accelerates; 5. Which of the following income or expenses is not taken into account when calculating GNP for a given year? a) rent for renting out an apartment; *b) purchase of bonds of a car company; c) growth of the company's reserves; d) servants' wages. 6. Disposable income is: *a) personal income minus individual taxes and non-tax payments; b) an amount including wages, salaries, rent and income in the form of interest on capital minus tax on personal income; c) wages and salaries, income in the form of interest on capital minus tax on personal income; 7. To determine the amount of national income, it is necessary: ​​a) subtract the amount of indirect taxes from the value of GNP; *b) reduce the amount of GDP by the amount of depreciation of the used fixed assets

7 funds; c) subtract from the GDP the amount of depreciation charges for a given period, the amount of indirect taxes and the amount of government subsidies; d) add the amount of government social transfer payments to GDP. 8. A Russian citizen temporarily works in the USA, in an American private company. Its income is included: *a) in the gross national product of Russia and the gross domestic product of the United States; b) in Russian GDP and US GDP; c) in Russian GNP and US GNP; D) in US GNP and US GDP. 9. The source of personal income is: a) income from property; b) income from rented housing; c) transfer payments; *d) wages, income from property, rental payments, transfer payments. 10. GDP does not include: a) products produced within the country by national capital; *b) receipts from abroad related to factor income; c) tangible and intangible services provided within the country; d) products produced within the country by foreign capital. 11. The size of GDP depends on: a) the amount of goods produced; b) the amount of resources used in the production of goods; *c) the quantity of goods produced and their prices; d) price dynamics. 12. The following is included in the GNP: a) purchase of new securities; *b) the cost of a new textbook in a bookstore; c) the amount of money received by the student from his parents; 13. GDP increased from 500 billion rubles. up to 600 billion rubles The GDP deflator increased from 125 to 150%. The value of real GDP: *a) will not change; b) will increase; c) will decrease; d) cannot be calculated from these data.

8 14. GDP=5000 billion rubles. Consumer spending = 3200 billion rubles. Government spending = 900 billion rubles. The volume of PVP will be: a) 820 billion rubles. b) 1800 billion rubles. c) 900 billion rubles. *d) cannot be determined based on this information. 15. To move from gross national product (GNP) to net national product (NNP), it is necessary: ​​a) add net investment spending; b) subtract net investment from GNP; c) add the amount of depreciation to GNP; *d) subtract depreciation of fixed assets. 16. Nominal GNP represents the cost of goods and services measured in: *a) current prices; b) real prices; c) prices of the base period; d) prices of the previous period. 17. The following income or expenses are not taken into account when calculating the GNP of a given year: a) rent for renting out an apartment; *b) purchase of bonds of a car company; c) growth of the company's reserves; d) servants' wages. 18. Which of the following types of income or expenses is taken into account when calculating GNP for a given year? a) the pension of a former factory worker; *b) the work of a house painter; c) money received from the sale of a car produced last year; d) monthly remittances received by the student from home. 19. Personal income is: a) the cost of goods and services produced during the year; *b) income received by households during a given year; c) all income intended for personal expenses after taxes; d) GDP minus depreciation. 20. Potential GDP is measured by: a) the volume of production corresponding to the level of potential needs of the population and all economic entities of the country; b) the volume of products that can be produced in the country under conditions

9 full employment of the population (at the level of natural unemployment); *c) the maximum volume of products that can be produced under given economic conditions and given factors of production. 21. To calculate the contribution of a company to the created GDP, calculated by the production method, it is necessary to subtract from the market value of products sold: a) all indirect taxes; b) retained earnings; c) depreciation; *d) the volume of purchases of materials from other companies. 22. If the volume of real GDP decreased by 6%, and the population in the same year decreased by 3%, then: *a) real GDP per capita decreased; b) real GDP per capita increased, but nominal GDP decreased; c) nominal GDP has not changed; d) prices fell by 3%. 23. The following value is not included in GDP calculated by the amount of expenses: a) investments; b) net exports; c) government procurement of goods and services; *d) salary. 24. Value added is defined as: a) the sum of wages and interest on the loan; *b) gross revenue minus current material costs plus deductions for depreciation; c) the amount of wages and depreciation; d) the sum of profits and wages. 25. An increase in government spending increases real GDP only if: a) government spending is directed to the purchase of goods and services, and not to the payment of officials; b) government spending is accompanied by an increase in the money supply; *c) government spending does not crowd out an equal volume of spending in the non-state sector; d) government spending is financed by issuing government loans.

10 26. If consumption expenditure is 60, gross investment is 20, government purchases of goods and services is 30, imports are 20, exports are 10, depreciation is 10, then the gross national product and net national product are equal, respectively: a) 110 and 100; *b) 100 and 90; c) 100 and 110; d) 120 and GNP, calculated by the flow of expenses, and GNP, calculated by the flow of income, are related as follows: *a) GNP by income is equal to GNP by expenses; b) GNP in terms of income is greater than GNP in terms of expenses in conditions of economic growth; c) the ratio between GNP by income and GNP by expenses depends on the inflation rate for the period under review; d) all answers are correct. 28. The accuracy of the macroeconomic model increases: a) when it approaches the real object; b) when the model becomes more complex; c) when reducing the number of restrictions introduced into the model; *d) with the correct identification of the main elements of the system and their relationships, expressing the economic process (phenomenon) under study 29. The circular flow model illustrates: a) the process of formation of market prices; b) interaction between the Central Bank, commercial banks, bank depositors and those who borrow money from banks; *c) relationships between the main economic entities; d) interaction of economic growth factors. 30. If the general level of prices in the country increases significantly over the year, and the production of goods and services does not change, then, other things being equal...: a) real gross domestic product (GDP) will increase; b) nominal GDP will decrease; *c) nominal GDP will increase; d) the real standard of living in the country will increase. 31. From the definitions of “gross domestic product” proposed below, choose the best one. Gross domestic product is: a) the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a calendar year; b) the cost of all final goods and services purchased at market prices

11 within the country during a calendar year; c) the market value of final goods and services produced by residents of the country during the calendar year; d) the market value of the country during the calendar year. 32. The organization by a British company of the production of sneakers in Russia...: *a) will increase the GNP of Great Britain; b) will increase UK GDP; c) will increase both; d) will not increase either one or the other. 33. The income received by the owners of factors of production totals... a) gross national product; b) gross domestic product; c) disposable income; *d) national income. 34. If real GNP is equal to potential, then, in accordance with the Phillips curve, which takes into account expected inflation, it can be argued that the actual inflation rate is zero? a) yes; *b) no. 35. A family’s purchase of a new house outside the city will affect the value of: a) net exports; b) government spending; *c) investment expenses; d) expenses for the purchase of durable consumer goods. Page 4 of 18 TOPIC 4. NATIONAL INCOME. NATIONAL WEALTH. 1. If corporate income taxes, retained earnings, and social security contributions are subtracted from national income, and then transfer payments are added, the resulting amount is: *a) personal income; b) depreciation; c) net national product; d) disposable income.

12 2. Indicate which of the following indicators is equal to the value obtained by adding the net national product, depreciation charges and indirect taxes: *a) gross domestic product; b) gross national product; c) added value; D) net national income. 3. The value of NNI is calculated as: a) the difference between the values ​​of GDP and NVP; *b) the difference between the value of GDP and depreciation charges; c) the amount of PVP and depreciation charges; d) the difference between the amount of NVP and the amount of indirect taxes; e) the amount of private national income and the balance of factor (primary) income received from abroad. 4. The group of indicators characterizing the economic security of the country includes: a) GNP, GDP, NNP, GNI; b) service life of fixed capital, resource potential, scientific and technical potential, share of investment in GDP, level of state budget deficit; c) the rate of capital accumulation in the industry, the industry rate of profit, the rate of economic growth; *d) the share of external public debt in GDP, the state of gold and foreign exchange reserves, the share of imports in domestic consumption, the share of external borrowings in covering the budget deficit. 5. To move from gross national product (GNP) to net national product (NNP), it is necessary: ​​a) add net investment spending; b) subtract net investment from GNP; c) add the amount of depreciation to GNP; *d) subtract depreciation of fixed assets. 6. National wealth is: a) natural resources and cultural values; b) natural resources and human resources; *c) means of production, accumulated property, natural resources, material and cultural values. 7. Transfer payments are: *a) payments not conditional on the production of goods and services; b) late payments;

13 c) part of the produced product that does not have a form of income; d) rental income. 8. Personal disposable income represents: a) accrued wages; b) total income received (salaries and other income); c) real income; *d) total income received minus tax and non-tax mandatory payments. Page 5 of 18 TOPIC 5. MACROECONOMIC EQUILIBRIUM AND LEVEL OF NATIONAL INCOME. 1. The intermediate segment on the aggregate supply curve: a) is represented by a vertical line; b) represented by a horizontal line; *c) has a positive slope; d) has a negative slope. 2. Of the listed statements, the following is true: *a) the AD curve has a negative slope; b) when the state tightens requirements for environmental conservation, this leads to an increase in production costs per unit of output and shifts the aggregate supply curve to the right; c) an increase in real output cannot be accompanied by an increase in prices. 3. In a situation when all resources are used, the potential volume of GNP has been reached, an increase in demand leads to: a) an increase in the supply of goods; *b) to an increase in prices with a constant supply. 4. In a situation where the potential volume of GNP has not yet been reached, not all resources have been used, an increase in demand leads to: *a) an increase in the supply of goods; b) to an increase in prices with a constant supply. 5. The shift of the aggregate demand curve to the right cannot reflect: a) an increase in the price level and real GDP at the same time; b) an increase in the price level in the absence of growth in real GDP;

14 c) growth in real GDP in the absence of price increases; *d) an increase in the price level and a decrease in real GDP at the same time. 6. If the price level rises and production falls, this is caused by: a) a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right; b) a shift of the aggregate demand curve to the left; *c) shift of the aggregate supply curve to the left; D) a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the right. 7. The aggregate demand curve expresses the relationship between: *a) the price level and total expenditures on the purchase of goods and services; b) the price level and produced GDP in real terms; c) the price level that buyers recognize and the price level that satisfies sellers; d) volumes of produced and consumed GDP in real terms. 8. The Keynesian segment on the aggregate supply curve: a) has a positive slope; b) has a negative slope; c) represented by a vertical line; *b) is represented by a horizontal line. 9. If aggregate supply exceeds aggregate demand, provided that government spending and net exports are zero, then: a) the sum of consumer and investment spending is equal to savings; b) savings are equal to investments; *c) savings exceed planned investments. 10. If prices rise, then: a) holders of securities with a fixed price increase their expenses; *b) the demand for money and the level of interest rates are growing; c) expenses sensitive to changes in interest rates increase; d) holders of fixed-price securities have increased purchasing power. 11. If the produced volume of GDP in real terms is less than the equilibrium value, then producers: *a) reduce production inventories and expand production; b) increase inventories and expand production; c) they reduce both inventories and production; d) increase inventories and reduce production. 12. When the economy is in a depression, then in the short term an increase in AD will lead to:

15 a) to increase prices, but will not affect the dynamics of GDP in real terms; *b) to increase the volume of GDP in real terms, but will not affect the price level; c) to an increase in both the price level and the volume of GDP in real terms; d) to higher prices and a reduction in GDP in real terms. 13. The aggregate demand curve rises if: a) the price level falls; b) the price level rises; c) excess production values ​​increase; *d) the exchange rate of the national currency decreases. 14. If prices for imported goods have increased, then it is most likely that this is caused by: *a) a reduction in aggregate supply; b) growth of aggregate supply; c) a fall in aggregate demand; 15. If business taxes increase, then: a) AD decreases, but the volume of AS does not change; *b) AS is reduced, but the volume of AD does not change; c) AS and AD are shortened; d) AS and AD increase. 16. The Keynesian model assumes: a) a vertical AS curve at the level of potential GDP; *b) a horizontal AS curve at a certain price level corresponding to a level of GDP below potential; c) an AS curve with a slight positive slope, reflecting the effect of interest rates; 17. The classical model explains the simultaneous decrease in GDP and the price level: a) only by a shift of AD to the left; b) only by shifting AD to the right; c) only by a decrease in potential GDP; *d) a decrease in aggregate demand and potential GDP. 18. The classical model explains a decrease in GDP while maintaining the price level: *a) a simultaneous decrease in aggregate demand and potential GDP; b) an increase in aggregate demand with constant potential GDP;

16 c) an increase in potential GDP with constant AD; d) an increase in AD with a decrease in potential GDP. 19. What happens in the economy in the long run with the volume of production at the potential level with an increase in government spending: a) the volume of production increases with a constant price level; *b) the general price level increases with a constant volume of production; c) the volume of production does not change, the general price level decreases; 20. The long-term consequences of an increase in the supply of money are expressed in: *a) an increase in the price level without changing the volume of output; b) increasing output without changing the price level; c) parallel increase in prices and output; d) no changes in both the price level and output volumes. 21. When all resources are used and the potential volume of GDP is reached, then an increase in aggregate demand leads to: a) an increase in the supply of goods; b) lower prices with a constant supply of goods; *c) rising prices with constant supply. 22. Personal consumer expenditures of households are: a) household expenditures on the purchase of durable goods and services; * b) household expenses for the purchase of durable and short-term goods and services; c) transfer payments and taxes; d) household expenditures on the purchase of goods and services and personal taxes. 23. The classical model assumes that the aggregate supply (AS) curve will be: a) horizontal at the price level determined by aggregate demand; b) horizontal at the price level, determined by the interest rate and government policy; c) vertical GNP at an arbitrary level; *d) vertical at the level of potential GNP. 24. If the state tightens requirements for environmental conservation, this causes: a) an increase in production costs per unit of output and a shift in the aggregate supply curve to the right; *b) an increase in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the left;

17 c) an increase in production costs per unit of output and a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left; d) a fall in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate demand curve to the left. 25. State policy to increase aggregate supply includes: *a) reduction of consumer imports; b) narrowing of the market for goods and services; c) increasing the marketability of the national economy; d) nationalization of private enterprises. 26. An increase in the price level and a simultaneous increase in the unemployment rate in the country... a) are impossible; b) are possible only in a centralized system; *c) may be due to a decrease in aggregate supply; D) may be caused by a fall in aggregate demand. 27. The classical model explains a decrease in GNP with a decrease in the price level: *a) a simultaneous decrease in aggregate demand and potential GNP; b) an increase in aggregate demand with constant potential GNP; c) an increase in potential GNP with constant aggregate demand. 28. Aggregate demand in macroeconomics is: a) government spending and investment demand of enterprises; b) household demand and net exports; *c) demand of all macroeconomic subjects of the economy; d) household demand and enterprise investment demand. 29. If the economy is initially in a state of long-term equilibrium, then an increase in the velocity of money can lead to: a) a fall in output in the short run and a fall in prices in the long run; b) a fall in output in the short term and an increase in prices in the long term; *c) growth in output in the short term and rising prices in the long term; d) an increase in output in the long term and an increase in prices in the short term. 30. According to the provisions of the classical model: *a) the level of aggregate demand is determined by the volume of production; b) prices and nominal wages are rigid; c) the aggregate supply curve is vertical and cannot shift either to the right or to the left;

18 d) investments and savings in the economy are determined by various factors and cannot be balanced by changes in the interest rate. Page 6 of 18 TOPIC 6. INVESTMENTS, CONSUMPTION, SAVINGS AND MACROECONOMIC EQUILIBRIUM 1. The volume of consumption and the volume of savings in total are equal to: *a) the volume of income; b) more income in conditions of economic growth; c) always less income; 2. Marginal propensity to save: *a) always less than 1; b) always equal to 0; c) equal to The marginal propensity to consume is: a) the increase in consumption relative to the increase in savings; b) the relationship between the volume of consumption and income; *c) increase in consumption per unit increase in income; 4. The multiplier effect (principle) shows: a) a change in income with an increase in investment; b) change in income with a decrease in investment; c) change in income with a constant amount of investment; *d) change in income when investments change. 5. In conditions of economic growth, the ratio between consumption and savings: *a) changes; b) equal to one; c) greater than one. 6. Savings are: a) all accumulated property of households and savings of the population; b) real cash balances of all market entities; c) part of the income invested in securities; *d) part of household income unspent in a given period of time.

19 7. Consumption is: *a) part of household income spent on the purchase of goods and services in the current period; b) part of the income intended for the purchase of goods and services in a future period; c) the balance of income accumulated in bank accounts. 8. Investments are: a) part of the income not spent in the current period; *b) investments in all types of production and non-production resources; c) acquisition of real estate; d) purchase of durable goods, as well as currency and gold. 9. The inverse relationship expresses the relationship between: a) savings and the level of interest rates; *b) investment expenses and interest rate level; c) investment expenses and national income; d) consumer spending and disposable income. 10. Savings can exceed investments if: *a) the level of interest rates increases; b) there has been overproduction and unemployment in the economy for a long time; c) in a planned economy. 11. If people become less thrifty, then, other things being equal: a) the price of credit will fall; b) demand for credit will increase; *c) the savings curve will shift to the left; d) the amount of savings will increase as the interest rate decreases. 12. According to the Keynesian concept of consumer spending: a) if disposable income rises, consumer spending falls; *b) consumer spending is directly related to disposable income; c) if disposable income increases, the share of savings increases. 13. J. M. Keynes argues that the volume of consumer spending in a country depends, first of all, on: a) the consumer’s place of residence; b) the age of family members;

20 c) the growth rate of money supply; *d) level of disposable income. 14. Net investment is: a) non-production costs; b) money spent by the population; c) gross investment minus taxes; *d) gross investment minus depreciation. 15. The connection between the marginal propensity to consume and save is expressed in the fact that: *a) their sum is equal to 1; b) the relationship between them characterizes the average propensity to consume; c) their amount is equal to disposable income; d) their sum is equal If people do not spend all their income on consumption and place the unspent amount in the bank, then we can say that they: *a) save but do not invest; b) invest, but do not save; c) do not save or invest; d) both save and invest. 17. The concept of “real investments” includes: *a) long-term capital investments in the sectors of material production; b) any amount of accumulated income that is not allocated to savings; c) any purchase of shares. 18. If the amount of disposable income decreases, then, other things being equal: a) both consumer spending and savings increase; b) consumer spending increases and savings decreases; c) consumer spending decreases and savings increase; *d) both consumer spending and savings are reduced. 19. If the real interest rate increases, then: a) the demand curve for investment will shift to the right; b) the demand curve for investment will shift to the left; *c) the amount of investment expenses will decrease; 20. Capital investments in land, real estate, machinery, equipment are called: a) portfolio investments;

21 b) direct investments; c) gross investments; *d) real investments. 21. Investing capital in various securities is: a) real investment; b) private investment; *c) financial investments; d) direct investment. 22. The approach is based on the category “propensity to save”: a) neoclassical; *b) Keynesian; c) monetarist; d) classic. 23. Changes in the level of interest rates have the greatest impact on: a) imports; *b) investments; c) government spending; d) export. 24. Of the following, real investments include: a) the purchase by the Alta company of shares of the Biser company; b) placement by the Alta company of temporarily available funds into an account with Invest Bank; *c) purchase by the Alta company of a plot of land for expansion of production. 25. The marginal propensity to save is: *a) the increase in savings per unit increase in disposable income; b) the ratio of total savings to total income; c) a curve characterizing the amount of savings at a given level of income; D) a change in saving caused by a change in income. 26. The marginal propensity to consume is: a) volume of consumption / volume of income; *b) increase/increase in income; 27. An increase in the marginal propensity to save: *a) has a negative impact on the growth of investment and the growth rate of GNP; b) has a beneficial effect on investment and GNP.

22 28. Public debt is the sum of: *a) budget deficits minus budget surpluses; b) budget deficits; c) defense spending; d) government spending. 29. One of the real problems of public debt is that: *a) part of the national product goes outside the country; b) incentives to increase production efficiency are increasing; c) reduces income inequality; D) the share of savings increases at all levels of disposable income. 30. Aggregate demand in macroeconomics is: a) government spending and investment demand of enterprises; b) household demand and net exports; *c) demand of all macroeconomic subjects of the economy; d) household demand and enterprise investment demand. 31. Savings are: a) all accumulated property of households and savings of the population; b) real cash balances of all market entities; c) part of the income invested in securities; *d) part of household income unspent in a given period of time. 32. Consumption is: *a) part of household income spent on the purchase of goods and services in the current period; b) part of the income intended for the purchase of goods and services in a future period; c) the balance of income accumulated in bank accounts; Page 7 of 18 TOPIC 7. CYCLICITY OF ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT. ECONOMIC CRISES. 1. The pattern of long-term economic development is: a) that it is uniform; *b) that it is cyclic. 2. The cyclical nature of economic development is manifested: *a) in fluctuations in economic conditions that have a periodic

23 character; b) in periodic downturns in business activity; c) in periodic increases in business activity; 3. The phases of the industrial cycle are considered to be: a) boom, recovery, revival and growth of the economy; b) depression, recession, decline in business activity; *c) crisis, depression, revival, recovery. 4. During the period of crisis decline in production there is: *a) an increase in unemployment; b) falling unemployment; c) employment remains unchanged; 5. During the period of economic recovery: *a) real production volume increases; b) nominal output increases; c) nominal output remains unchanged; d) real output decreases, and nominal output increases. 6. The duration of the economic cycle is: a) one year; b) five years; in ten years; *d) it is impossible to give a definite answer. 7. During the period of crisis decline in production, the following is observed: *a) increase in unemployment; b) falling unemployment; C) employment remains unchanged. 8. The theory of the business cycle studies: a) the mechanism for coordinating the plans of firms, consumers, and the state; *b) reasons for fluctuations in the real volume of national production, factors and conditions for sustainable equilibrium growth of the economy. c) the structure of the country's GDP. 9. Medium-term economic cycles include fluctuations in economic conditions with a period of: a) 50 years or more; b) 30 years; *at 10; d) 1 year.

24 9. The reason that causes economic cycles was considered by the influence of sunspots on people: *a) W. Jevons; b) S. de. Sismondi; c) I. Fischer; d) M.I. Tugan-Baranovsky. 10. The reason causing economic cycles was considered to be the excess of production of means of production over the production of consumer goods: a) W. Jevons; b) I. Fischer; c) M. Friedman; *d) M.I. Tugan-Baranovsky. 11. The gap between market and natural interest rates was considered the cause of economic cycles by: *a) K. Wicksell; b) J. M. Keynes; c) J. Schumpeter; d) N.D. Kondratiev. 12. The principle of acceleration means: *a) growth of investment caused by growth in income and consumer spending; b) income growth caused by increased investment; c) acceleration of economic development due to increased demand for means of production; d) none of the answers are correct. 13. The principle of acceleration was first substantiated by: a) J. M. Clark; b) J. M. Keynes; c) J.B. Clark; *d) A. Aftalyon. 14. Long-term cycles of economic conditions are named after their discoverer by cycles: a) Kitchin; b) Juglar; *c) Kondratiev; d) Blacksmith. 15. Medium-term economic cycles are named after their discoverer cycles:

25 a) Kitchina; *b) Zhuglyar; c) Kondratiev; d) Blacksmith. 16. During the period of economic recovery: *a) real production volume increases; b) nominal output increases; c) nominal output remains unchanged; d) real output decreases, and nominal output increases. 17. The economic cycle is associated with: a) the action of only external factors; *b) the action of external and internal factors; c) factors primarily influencing the dynamics of aggregate demand; d) factors that primarily influence supply dynamics. 18. Of the listed phenomena does not correspond to a period of economic recession: a) decrease in investment in equipment with a long service life; b) falling stock prices, lower demand for labor; c) reduction in tax revenues; *d) reduction in the volume of unemployment benefits. 19. The numerical value of which of the following indicators falls after the onset of the boom phase and grows after the onset of the decline phase: *a) the volume of inventory in the manufacturing industry; b) GDP volume; c) average length of the working week; d) securities rates. 20. Exogenous, external causes of cyclical development include: *a) natural and climatic phenomena; b) supply and demand; c) political phenomena and processes; 21. Anti-cyclical regulation of the economy is aimed at: a) reducing the crisis decline in production; b) to accelerate economic growth; *c) to stabilize economic development; 22. The cyclical nature of economic development is characteristic of: *a) a market economy;

26 b) for traditional economics; c) for a command-administrative economy. Page 8 of 18 TOPIC 8. INFLATION. ANTI-INFLATION POLICY. 1. Inflation is: *a) a fall in the value or purchasing power of money; b) rising cost of living; 2. An increase in energy prices gives: a) demand inflation; *b) supply inflation; 3. (Prices of the current month/prices of the base month) x 100% - this is; *a) inflation rate; b) inflation rate. 4. ((Price index of the current month - price index of the past month) / Price index of the current month) x 100% is: *a) inflation rate; b) inflation rate. 5. Let a reduction in inflation by 1 percentage point be associated with a fall in real GNP by 5% per year. According to Okun's law, a deviation of the unemployment rate from the natural rate by 1 percentage point causes a change in GNP by 2% over the same period. What will be the cyclical unemployment rate if inflation decreases by 3 percentage points? a) 6%; b) 10%; at 5%; *d) 7.5%. 6. If real GNP is equal to potential, then, in accordance with the Phillips curve, which takes into account inflation expectations, it can be argued that the actual inflation rate is zero? a) yes; *b) no. 7. An increase in expected inflation causes a shift in the Phillips curve (with the inflation rate on the vertical axis): a) to the right by an amount equal to the increase in inflation; b) to the left by an amount equal to the increase in inflation;

27 c) down by an amount equal to this increase; *d) up by an amount equal to this growth. 8. If we compare the situation when the behavior of economic agents is based on the fact that expected inflation is equal to the inflation of the expected year, with the behavior of economic agents corresponding to the concept of rational expectations, then we can assume that the movement of the economy to a new point of long-term equilibrium (when the unemployment rate is equal to the natural ) due to changes in fiscal or monetary policy requires: *a) less time; b) more time; c) the same amount of time. 9. To combat inflation, the Central Bank should: a) issue government securities; b) reduce the norm of bank reserves; * c) reduce the discount rate, which will lead to a decrease in interest on deposits in commercial banks. 10. In the long term, state anti-inflationary policy is based on: a) increasing financing of certain types of activities; b) growth of grants and subsidies; c) growth of the budget deficit; *d) limiting the money supply. 11. Slowing the rate of inflation directly benefits: a) the entire population of the country; *b) sellers selling in installments; c) clients of a bank charging a fixed interest rate; d) the government of the country. 12. Most likely to benefit from a sudden increase in inflation are: a) people living on a fixed pension; b) owners of insurance policies who have insured their lives; c) depositors of savings banks; *d) people who received an interest-free loan 13. According to the monetarist concept, there is an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment: *a) in the short term; b) in the long term; c) both in the short and long term.

28 14. The inflation tax increases if: a) the issue of government bonds increases; b) the expected rate of inflation increases; *c) the actual rate of inflation increases; d) the population's demand for real cash balances decreases. 15. The deficit of government securities does not directly lead to inflation if it: a) does not exceed 5% of GDP; *b) fixed through the placement of government bonds; c) financed by government loans from the Central Bank; D) is covered by issuing additional cash. 16. Which of the following factors can cause demand inflation? *a) an increase in the deficit of government securities; b) increase in oil prices; c) a decrease in the marginal propensity to consume; d) increasing personal income tax rates. 17. Supply inflation can arise as a result of: a) an increase in the state budget deficit; b) increasing the country's payment budget deficit; *c) increasing wage rates; D) an increase in net exports. 18. If prices for raw materials rise, wages rise, and production volume and employment decline, then this is: a) inflation of excess demand; b) stagflation; *c) inflation of production costs. 19. The annual inflation rate in the country was 30%. This means that the average price level in this country over the year: a) increased 3 times; *b) increased 4 times; c) increased by 2 times; d) has not changed. 20. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in inflation: *a) rising energy prices; b) the beginning of the development of a vast coal basin; c) an increase in the discount rate (refinancing rate) by the Central Bank; d) abolition of income tax benefits for individuals.

29 21. With an increase in the rate of inflation, the market price of government obligations with a fixed interest: a) will tend to increase; *b) will tend to decrease; c) will be stable and equal to the nominal value; d) will fall to zero. 22. When the inflation rate decreases, the following will benefit: *a) creditors and employees with fixed wages; b) debtors and employees with fixed wages; c) creditors and employers paying fixed wages to their employees; d) debtors and employers paying fixed wages to their employees. 23. Which of the following is not related to cost-push inflation? *a) growth in employment and output; b) “catch-up” wage growth; c) supply currents; D) rising costs per unit of production. 24. Suppose that a loan of 100 is provided by a bank for one year, provided that the inflation rate is 12% per year, and the amount of debt to be repaid in real terms is 105. What is the nominal interest rate on the loan in this case? a) 12%; b) 5%; c) 18%; *d) 17.6%; e) 13.3%. Page 9 of 18 TOPIC 9. STATE REGULATION OF THE ECONOMY. 1. Which of the following is not a public good: *a) cars; b) police; c) lighthouses; d) flood protection. 2. State policy aimed at macroeconomic stabilization in the recession phase is: a) an increase in interest rates on bank loans;

30 b) reducing government spending to reduce unemployment; c) curbing additional lending; *d) reduction in tax rates. 3. Widespread use of economic methods of state regulation: *a) can weaken the effect of market mechanisms; b) leaves the market mechanism neutral; c) does not affect the market mechanism; d) can strengthen the operation of market mechanisms. 4. Antimonopoly legislation is aimed primarily at providing: a) consumers with public goods and services; *b) competition conditions; c) full employment; d) economic freedom. 5. Keynesianism as an economic theory states that: *a) a market economy in itself does not ensure the full use of its resources; b) complete satisfaction of society's needs for goods and services is a spontaneous process; c) the economy will become more efficient in the absence of state regulation; d) only self-reproducing development of the private sector of the economy gives the greatest effect. 6. The peculiarities of the functions of the state in the Russian economy are primarily due to: a) the excessive development of the market mechanism; *b) lack of the necessary basis for their implementation; c) underdevelopment of personal consumption of the population; d) disproportionality in the national economy. 7. Which of the following best reflects the concept of “state in the economy”? *a) a set of legislative, executive and judicial bodies operating at all territorial levels of government; b) a set of legislative, executive and judicial bodies operating at the federal level of government; c) the totality of natural, labor and capital resources available on the territory of a given country; d) the totality of natural, labor and capital resources owned by the residents of a given country.

31 8. Highlight the point where administrative methods of state regulation are not the main ones: *a) fiscal policy; b) development of a national standardization and certification system; c) antimonopoly regulation; d) creation of state reserves. 9. From the following: 1. Providing a legal basis for the functioning of the economy; 2. Regulation of the general price level; 3. Protection of competition; 4. Redistribution of income; 5. Organization and stimulation of scientific and technological progress; 6. Policy to reduce production costs; 7. Impact on resource allocation; 8. Creation of market infrastructure; 9. Distribution of social product; 10. Policy of macroeconomic stabilization. - the main economic functions of the state are: a) 1,2,4,7,9 b) 3,4,8,9,10. *c) 1,3,4,7,10. d) 1,4,5,6, “Market failures” include such processes as: *a) production of public goods; b) side effects from resource overflow; c) efficient use of resources. 11. One of the manifestations of “market failure” is the presence of: *a) external effects; b) internal effects; c) mixed effects; 12. The production of public goods is unprofitable, since: *a) the supply price is higher than the demand price; b) the demand price is greater than the supply price; c) demand price = 0; d) supply price = The first to formulate the principles of a mixed economy are: *a) A. Wagner; b) J. M. Keynes; c) R. Solow; d) L. Walraas.

32 14. The public sector is a part of the economic space where: a) the market does not work; b) the production of public goods is carried out; c) non-profit organizations operate; *d) all of the above. 15. Non-rivalry of a public good means that: a) the good is indivisible; b) the good cannot be sold individually; c) the good is consumed jointly; *d) all of the above. 16. External effects are: *a) a side effect of the production or consumption of a good on the production or consumption of another good b) an increase in consumer utility as a result of the impact of the production of a good c) the impact of the production of one good on the market equilibrium as a whole 17 The dominant place in the public sector is occupied by: a) voluntary organizations b) commercial enterprises *c) state-owned enterprises and organizations d) political parties 18. “Market failures” are called: a) situations in the economy where the market does not work or works partially; b) when the market fails to cope with its functions and cannot ensure the efficient production of goods; *c) all of the above are true; d) the presence of “external effects”. 19. State regulation of a market economy: a) generated exclusively by the interests of the bureaucratic state apparatus; b) serves the economic goals of the national financial economy; c) caused, first of all, by the interests of the military-industrial complex; *d) is intended to serve to strengthen the existing system, adapt it to changing conditions by setting and solving problems that the market mechanism cannot solve. 20. The peculiarities of the functions of the state in the Russian economy are primarily due to: a) the excessive development of the market mechanism;

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1. Compare the subjects of the national economy (macroeconomic agents) with their characteristics. 1 D 2 C 3 B 4 A 1- supply of goods, 2 demand for household goods, 3 demand for investment, 4 demand for

Home test on macroeconomics 1. The country’s economy is characterized by the following data: real income amounted to 2800 CU, government purchases of goods and services 350 CU, consumer

Sample questions for preparing for the exam in the discipline “Macroeconomics” for full-time students 1. The main subjects of macroanalysis and the relationship between them. 2. Macroeconomic goals of the state.

St. Petersburg State Technical University List of test questions for the discipline “Macroeconomics” Aksenova T.N. St. Petersburg 2002. Abstract: A series of tests is proposed

CYCLICALITY OF DEVELOPMENT OF ECONOMIC SYSTEMS Lecture plan 1. Types of cycles 2. Main phases of the cycle 3. Reason for cyclicality Cyclicality is the movement of the national economy from one macroeconomic equilibrium

14.4. Determinants of aggregate supply Let us list the non-price factors of aggregate supply. 1. Changes in legal norms: a) government regulation; b) tax policy, 2. Changes in productivity.

Aggregate demand and aggregate supply 1. Aggregate demand. Price and non-price factors of aggregate demand. 2. Aggregate supply. Discussions about the shape of the aggregate supply curve. Non-price factors

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Test with answers on Macroeconomics (the correct answer is in bold):

1. Macroeconomics, unlike microeconomics, does not study:
a) long-term trends in economic development
6) short-term economic fluctuations
c) behavior of consumers and producers in the markets of individual goods
d) patterns of formation of supply and demand in the securities market
d) there is no correct answer

2. In the economic model:
a) both exogenous and endogenous variables are fixed when they are entered into the model
6) both exogenous and endogenous variables are determined within the model
c) endogenous variables affect exogenous variables
d) exogenous variables affect endogenous variables
e) endogenous variables are set outside the model

3. Stock indicators include:
a) salary
b) depreciation
c) investments
d) transfer payments
e) number of unemployed

4. What relationship is direct and immediate in the circulation model:
a) goods and services are exchanged for factors of production in the market of economic resources
6) wages, rent and interest payments are exchanged for income in the market for goods and services
c) household expenses are converted into revenues of firms in the market for goods and services
d) household income is converted into revenue of firms in the market of economic resources
e) firms exchange revenue for labor, land and capital in the market for economic resources

5. In an open economy, total output (total product) (Y) is $4000 billion, consumer spending is $2600 billion, investment is $900 billion, government purchases is $850 billion, net taxes – 800 billion dollars. The amount of private savings is equal to:
A) 550 billion dollars;
B) 600 billion dollars;
B) -50 billion dollars;
D) -350 billion dollars;
D) 50 billion dollars.

6. In order to obtain disposable income in the circulation model, it is necessary to subtract from the total income:
a) net taxes and add transfers
b) taxes and add transfers
c) transfers and add taxes
d) both taxes and transfers

7. A fabric production company sells tapestries worth 200 thousand rubles to a furniture factory, and a woodworking plant sells blanks for the production of sofas worth 600 thousand rubles. The manufactured sofas were sold to local residents for 1,200 thousand rubles. As a result, GDP increases by:
a) 400 thousand rubles.
b) 1200 thousand rubles. minus furniture factory profit
c) 1200 thousand rubles.
d) 2000 thousand rubles.
d) it’s impossible to say for sure

8. A steel mill sold steel to a refrigerator manufacturer for $300 and the steel was used in the production of a refrigerator that was sold to a dealer for $1,200. The dealer sold the refrigerator to the family for $1,400, and the family resold the refrigerator for $1,500. In this case, GDP increased by:
a) 800
b) 1200
c) 1400
d) 1500
e) 2900

9. Which of the following is included in GDP, but not included in GNP:
a) income from the sale of shares in a company that produces VCRs
b) unemployment benefits
c) the worker’s wages received for work in another country
d) the income of a foreign manager temporarily working in a private company in a given country
e) income of citizens of the country from foreign investments

11. Total expenses in the economy are not equal to total income if:
a) total saving exceeds total investment
b) net exports are negative
c) there is a government budget deficit
D) net investment is negative.
d) there is no correct answer

12. In a two-sector economic model:
a) household savings are a withdrawal from the circulation
b) investment is an injection
c) withdrawals in the form of savings are equal to injections in the form of investments
d) all answers are correct
d) no true

14. The country's consumer spending amounted to $2500 billion, government purchases of goods and services $750 billion, exports $55 billion, imports $20 billion, indirect taxes $300 billion, gross private investment in fixed assets $450 billion, investment in housing construction $200 billion, change in inventories $50 billion, cost of consumed fixed capital $350 billion. Net domestic product is equal to:
a) 4285

b) 4635

c) 3985

d) 3635

15. Nominal GDP cannot be:
a) more than real GDP
b) equal to real GDP
c) less than real GDP
d) no true

16. If production volume does not change and the price level doubles, then a) real and nominal GDP do not change:
b) real and nominal GDP are reduced by half
c) real and nominal GDP doubles
d) real GDP does not change, nominal GDP doubles
e) real doubles nominal does not change

18. A country's net exports increase if they increase:
a) national income in a given country
b) national income in another country
c) exchange rate of national monetary units
d) all answers are correct

19. A reduction in the money supply leads to a shift:
a) to the right of the demand scoop curve
b) to the left of the demand scoop curve
c) to the right of the supply curve
d) to the left of the supply curve
e) to the left and the aggregate supply and demand curve

01/01/2016 | Economics | admin

1. Unlike microeconomics, macroeconomics:
A) studies household behavior
B) does not use speculative hypotheses
+C) operates primarily with aggregated concepts
D) uses concepts of economic equilibrium
E) studies the behavior of firms

2. What sectors are distinguished in macroeconomics:
A) abroad
B) household sector
C) business sector
D) state
+E) abroad, household sector, business sector and state

3. All of the following are macroeconomic problems except:
A) recession
B) inflation
C) unemployment
+D) price discrimination
E) economic growth

4. GNP can be measured in the following ways, except:
A) by method of spending
+B) using the double counting method
C) by added value
D) by method of income
E) according to the final product

5. What macroeconomics studies:
A) the economy of the company
B) theory of consumer behavior
+C) the economy as a whole
D) factor markets
E) goods market

6. What indicators can be classified as macroeconomic:
+A) inflation, unemployment, real GNP
B) cost, full costs
C) marginal cost
D) labor productivity and wages
E) coefficient of elasticity

7. What is economic policy called if its instruments are taxes and government spending:
A) investment
B) monetary
C) currency
+D) fiscal
E) antitrust

8. The direction in macroeconomics that appeared after the crisis of 1929, asserting the need for state intervention in regulating aggregate demand, is called:
A) institutionalism
B) monetarism
C) neoclassical direction
D) direction based on the theory of rational expectations
+E) Keynesian direction

9. The circulation of income and expenses in a closed economy proves that:
A) income in the economy is less than expenses
B) income in the economy is greater than expenses
+C) income in the economy equals expenses
D) the economy is unbalanced and external loans are required
E) expenses exceed income due to existing savings and loans

10. The final products include:
+A) products that are not subject to processing and resale
B) semi-finished products
C) products from one workshop for another
D) internal production
E) stocks of materials in warehouses

11. What was real GNP in 1933, using 1929 as the base period?

Nominal GNP
GNP deflator
1929
$96 billion
100%
1933
$48 billion
75%

A) $72 billion
+B) $64 billion
C) $36 billion
D) 48 billion dollars.
E) 58 billion dollars.

12. Suppose that in the base year nominal GNP was 500. After 6 years, the GNP deflator has doubled, and real GNP has increased by 40%. In this case, nominal GNP after 6 years was:
A) 2000
B) 1000
+C) 1400
D) 750
E) 500

13. If firms begin to pay all their profits to shareholders in the form of dividends, then the indicator in the national accounts will increase:
A) GNP
B) net investment
C) depreciation
+D) personal income
E) gross investment

14. Investment is 220, budget surplus is 10, exports are 175, and imports are 185. What is private saving?
+A) 200
B) 220
C) 180
D) 240
E) 250

15. A tire company sells 4 tires worth $400 to a car manufacturer. Another company sells a player to a car company for $500. Having installed all this on a new car, the car company sells it for $20,000. What amount will be included in the counting as part of GNP?
A) 900
+B) 20000
C) 20900
D) 19100
E) 20500

16. When comparing the distribution of income tax before and after taxes, the following analysis takes place:
A) static
+B) comparative statics
C) dynamic
D) comparative dynamics
E) microeconomic

17. ND cannot exceed:
A) GDP expressed at market prices
B) NNP expressed in market prices
C) GDP expressed in prices equal to production costs
+D) GNP expressed in prices equal to production costs
E) NNP expressed in base prices

18. To expand the country’s productive potential, it is necessary that:
+A) ND exceeded the volume of consumer spending of the population and the state
B) GNP exceeded NNP by the amount of depreciation
C) net investment exceeded depreciation
D) NNP exceeded NI
E) Disposable income exceeded personal income

19. NI differs from household disposable income by the amount:
+A) transfer payments from the state to the population
B) depreciation
C) personal income received from abroad
D) income from self-employment
E) dividends

20. Real ND is:
A) measured in base year prices, the sum of household consumption, net investment by entrepreneurs, government spending, and the country's exports for the period
B) the totality of goods and services produced during the period
+C) value newly created during the period measured in prices of the base year
D) NNP measured at current prices, minus indirect taxes plus subventions
E) Nominal ND minus taxes

21. Suppose a consumer buys 1 kg of beef and 1 kg of fish every month. In the base year, both beef and fish cost 1 tenge. In 2002, the price of beef increased and began to cost 2 tenge, but the price of fish remained the same. The CPI in 2002 will be equal to:
+A) 3/2
B) 1/2
C) 2
D) 1
E) 2/3

22. The GNP deflator is:
A) the ratio of real GNP to the price index
C) the ratio of real to nominal GNP
+C) the ratio of nominal GNP to real
D) the ratio of real GNP to CPI
E) the ratio of current output in physical terms to the base one

23. Suppose consumer spending was 250 tenge. The annual growth rate of consumption is 2%. The amount of government spending is fixed and equal to 40 tenge. The investment cost function is equal to: I=20 + 100% / r, where r = 20%. What is the value of GNP?
A) 250
B) 315
C) 318
+D) 320
E) 255

24. Suppose that the potential GNP of the economy is 40 billion tenge, and the actual GNP is 32 billion tenge. The GNP gap, expressed as a percentage, will be:
+A) 20
AT 8
C) 125
D) 80
E) 25

25. If citizens of Kazakhstan work in Russia, then the products they produce must be taken into account:
A) in the GNP of Kazakhstan
B) in Kazakhstan's GDP
C) in Russia's GNP
+D) in the GNP of Kazakhstan and the GDP of Russia
E) in Russia's GDP

26. National income is:
+A) rent, wages, interest on capital, income from property and corporate profits
B) C+T+G - transfer payment and - indirect taxes
C) investments minus savings
D) the cost of durable goods and services
E) GNP - depreciation

27. Gross private investment is taken into account when calculating:
A) personal disposable income
C) GNP using the income stream method
C) NNP using the cost flow method
D) personal income
+E) GNP using the expenditure flow method

28. If the identity is used to calculate GDP: Y=C+I+G+NX, then this calculation method is called:
A) by income
+B) by expenses
C) for final products
D) value added
E) according to the basic indicator

29. Nominal GDP is:
A) GDP measured in constant prices
+B) GDP measured at current prices
C) GDP measured by inflation
D) GDP measured as a percentage
E) consumer price index

30. What does the consumer price index show?
A) manufacturer sustainability
B) GDP price level
C) consumer preferences
D) composition of the consumer basket
+E) the price level of a certain set of goods and services

31. Equality in the distribution of income in the long run leads to the following consequences:
A) increased social labor productivity and accelerated economic growth rates
B) eliminating poverty and improving the well-being of all members of society
C) decreased interest in effective and high-quality labor and business activities
D) contradicts the principles of functioning of the market economy mechanism
+E) answers C, D are correct

32. The reasons for inequality in the distribution of national income in a market economy are:
A) economic recession and inflation
B) lack of effective mechanisms for the distribution and redistribution of income
C) differences in people's abilities, education, and motivations
D) competitive mechanism for organizing production and distribution of the product
+E) answers C, D are correct

33. Consider the following data:
GNP 104.4
Capital consumption 8.6
Indirect taxes 7.0
Corporate profit 10.1



Dividends 5.8
Personal income taxes 2.6
National income is equal to:
+A) 88.8;
B) 95.8;
C) 94.3;
D) 97.4;
E) 91.4.

34. Determine personal income:
GNP 104.4
Capital consumption 8.6
Indirect taxes 7.0
Corporate profit 10.1
Social contributions insurance 0.2
Government transfers 0.9
Net government interest 1.0
Dividends 5.8
Personal income taxes 2.6
+A) 84.2
B) 83.6
C) 82.7
D) 87.8
E) 81.6

35. Deductions for capital consumption are:
+A) Depreciation
B) Net investment;
C) Net foreign investment;
D) Inventory cost of capital;
E) Funds that cannot be used to purchase consumer goods.

36. Which of the following is included in the GNP?
A) Housewife services;
+B) The cost of a new textbook in a bookstore;
C) Buying a used car from a neighbor;
D) Purchasing new shares from a broker;
E) Growing potatoes on your own plot for personal consumption.

37. Given: Consumption = 3657
Investments = 741
Government procurement = 1098
Export = 673
Import = 704
Depreciation = 576
Indirect business taxes = 471
Corporate profit = 298
Social insurance contributions = 507
Net interest = 467
Dividends = 159
Individual state transfers = 660
Personal interest income = 680
Individual taxes = 699
Find disposable (net) income:
+A) 3946;
B) 5466;
C) 4418;
D) 4645;
E) 5344.

38. How is gross domestic product measured:
A) In quantitative terms;
B) In percentage terms;
+C) In value terms;
D) In ​​those units in which the product is released;
E) GDP does not have a unit of measurement.

39. Products manufactured by foreign citizens on the territory of Kazakhstan must be taken into account:
A) In the GNP of Kazakhstan;
+B) In Kazakhstan's GDP;
C) In the GDP of the country of a foreign citizen;
D) In ​​the GNP of Kazakhstan and the GDP of the country of a foreign citizen;
E) There are no correct answers.

40. Let the economy produce 10 tons of grain at a price of $100 per ton and 2 machines at a price of $500 per machine. The country's GDP is equal to:
A) 20;
B) 1000;
C) 500;
D) 10;
+E) 2000.

41. Real GDP is:
+A) GDP measured in constant prices;
B) GDP measured at current prices;
C) consumer price index;
D) GDP measured as a percentage;
E) GDP measured at current exchange rates.

42. In the identity Y= C+I+G+NX, the factor C means:
+A) Consumer spending;
B) Investment costs;
C) Government spending;
D) Net exports;
E) Depreciation.

43. In the identity Y= C+I+G+NX, factor I means:
A) Net exports;
B) Consumer spending;
C) Government spending;
+D) Investment costs;
E) Income.

44. In the identity Y= C+I+G+NX, the factor G means:
A) Net exports;
B) Consumer spending;
+C) Government spending;
D) Investment costs;
E) Income.

45. In the identity Y= C+I+G+NX, the factor NX means:
+A) Net exports;
B) consumer spending;
C) investment costs;
D) government spending;
E) depreciation.

46. ​​What term in macroeconomics refers to benefits and scholarships paid to the population:
A) subsidies;
+B) transfers;
C) duties;
D) taxes;
E) help.

47. Net national product (NNP) is:
+A) GNP – depreciation;
B) GNP – indirect taxes;
C) GNP – transfers;
D) GNP + depreciation;
E) GNP – subsidies.

48. National income (NI) for expenditures is defined as:
A) NNP (net national product) + indirect taxes;
+B) NNP - indirect taxes;
C) PNP + subsidies;
D) NNP + depreciation;
E) NNP - depreciation.

49. The company bought materials for the manufacture of products in the amount of $200. Produced products and sold them for $260. What is the value of 260-200=60 dollars when calculating GDP:
+A) added value;
B) price index;
C) consumer value;
D) company profit;
E) income from property.

50. The composition of the consumer basket is shown in the table
Product
Base year (2000)
Current Year (2005)

price
quantity
price
quantity
Meat
200
2 kg
400
2kg
Groats
50
4kg
100
4kg

Determine the Consumer Price Index (CPI)
+A) (800+400)/(400+200)=2;
B) (400+200)/(800+400)=1/2;
C) (400+100)/(50+200)=2;
D) (200+400)/(50+100)=4;
E) (50+100)/(200+400)1/4.

51. Which of the following economists belongs to the idea of ​​state regulation of the economy?
A) K. Marx.
+B) D. Keynes.
C) M. Friedman.
D) A. Smith.
E) D. Ricardo.

52.Macroeconomic policy is:
A) Functional dependence of changes in consumption on changes in income.
B) Decrease in inflation rate.
+C) Purposeful activities of the state, its institutions, both legislative and executive bodies.
D) Activities aimed at coordinating the economic behavior of individual economic entities.
E) Economic and mathematical modeling.

53. Specific features of macroeconomics:
A) Empirical testing of the correctness of theoretical hypotheses.
+B) Study of the general patterns of functioning of the economy as a whole.
C) Study of the economic behavior of agents of a market economy.
D) Study of the state of economic relations between
homogeneous firms on the most pressing issues.
E) Analysis of the profitability of a particular enterprise.

54. What affects the distribution of national income?
A) government loans.
+B) state budget revenues.
C)inflation.
D) investments.
E) concentration of capital.

55. Which of the following does not apply to the basic methods of studying macroeconomic processes and phenomena:
A) Graphical modeling.
B) Scientific experiment.
C) Verbal modeling.
+D) Microeconomic analysis.
E) Mathematical modeling.

56. Personal income is:
A) ND.
B) The amount of savings from private sources.
C) GNP minus depreciation.
D) The cost of goods and services produced per year.
+E) Income received by households during the year.

57. What issues does macroeconomics study?
+A) Analysis of the causes of inflation, unemployment, the monetary circulation system, and the equilibrium of the economic system as a whole.
B) Research questions on the problems of selling products and increasing production efficiency.
C) Analysis of the activities of the small business sector.
D) Analysis of the process of expanding sugar beet production.
E) Study of the behavior of agents such as households, firms, individual consumers and producers.

58. Which of the following is not a factor in the growth of potential GDP:
A) Growth in the labor force.
B) Growth in labor productivity in the economy.
+C) Reduction in the number of employees.
D) An increase in the price level.
E) Growth of the capital stock in the economy.

59. Macroeconomics studies:
A) Causes of the budget deficit.
+B) Causes of inflation, unemployment, the monetary circulation system and the equilibrium of the economic system as a whole.
C) Problems of selling products and increasing production efficiency.
D) Behavior of households, firms, individual consumers and producers.
E) Use of factors of production and formation of the state budget.

60. When calculating national income and national product, you cannot sum up:
+A) Government procurement, wages and salaries.
B) Net investment and consumer spending.
C) Consumer spending and personal savings.
D) Corporate profits and interest payments by entrepreneurs for loans.
E) Government spending and investment.

61. Macroeconomic models are:
A) Description of the economic activities of the company.
B) The most effective methods for conducting economic policy at a regional level.
+C) Formalized descriptions of various economic phenomena and processes in order to identify functional relationships between them.
D) Psychological and structural changes.
E) Scientific abstraction of reality.

62. Gross domestic product is:
A) A certain amount of goods and services in the world.
B) Market value of final goods and services produced during the year
national commodity producers both within the country and abroad.
+C) Market value of goods and services produced during the year
commodity producers within the country, regardless of nationality.
D) Goods and services produced during the year by commodity producers within the country.
E) The market value of final goods and services produced during the year by national producers outside the country.

63. What is net exports in a closed economy?
+A) Zero.
B) State savings.
C) Savings of the population.
D) The value of the cost of imported goods.
E) The value of export goods.

64. What needs to be done to obtain the ND value?
A) Add indirect taxes to NNP.
+B) Subtract indirect taxes from NNP.
C) Subtract depreciation and all taxes from GDP.
D) Add transfer payments to personal income.
E) Add taxes to your disposable income.

65. The value of which element of GNP is most influenced by changes in the level of interest rates:
A) Consumer spending.
+B) Investments.
C) Government spending.
D) Export.
E) Import.

66. If the government intends to increase the level of real NNP, it can:
+A) Raise taxes.
B) Reduce transfer payments.
C) Reduce government purchases of goods and services.
D) Reduce the level of budget deficit.
E) Reduce taxes.

67. If taxes on corporate profits, retained earnings and social security contributions are subtracted from national income. insurance, and then add the net transfer payments, then the resulting amount is:
+A) Personal income;
B) Depreciation;
C) GNP;
D) NNP;
E) Disposable income.

68. Which of these aggregate values ​​is not included in GNP, calculated based on the amount of expenses:
A) Gross investment;
B) C + I + G;
C) Net exports of goods and services;
D) Government procurement of goods and services;
+E) Salary and salary.

69. Salary is taken into account only when calculating:
+A) GNP using the income stream method;
C) GNP using the expenditure flow method;
C) Net exports;
D) Net subsidies to state-owned enterprises;

70. Which of the listed aggregate values ​​are not used when determining the volume of national income?
A) Corporate profit;
+B) Government transfer payments;
C) Interest paid by entrepreneurs on capital received on credit;
D) Salary and salary;
E) Rental income.

71. If the volume of real GNP decreased by 6%, and the population in the same year decreased by 3%, then:
+A) Real GNP per capita has decreased;
B) Real GNP per capita increased;
C) Real GDP increased, but nominal GDP decreased;
D) Nominal GDP has not changed.
E) Real GDP decreased, but nominal GDP increased.

72. Transfer payments are:
+A) Payments to households that are not conditional on the provision of goods and services on their part;
B) Only government payments to individuals;
C) The component of income that is not included in national income;
D) Answers A, B, C are correct;
E) All previous answers are incorrect.

73. Disposable income is:
+A) Personal income – individual taxes and non-tax payments;
B) A sum including wages, salaries, rent, and income in the form of interest on capital;
C) Wages and salaries, income in the form of interest on capital - personal income tax;
D) Answers A, B, C are correct;
E) All previous answers are incorrect.

74. Let’s assume that nominal GNP increased from 500 billion tenge to 600 billion tenge, and the GNP deflator from 125% to 150%. Under such conditions, the value of real GNP is:
+A) will not change;
B) will increase;
C) will decrease;
D) will increase and decrease;
E) cannot be calculated from these data.

75. To determine the contribution of the public sector to GNP production, it is necessary to calculate:
A) the volume of consumer spending on the purchase of goods and services;
+B) the volume of government spending on the purchase of goods and services;
C) the volume of investment expenses;
D) volume of net exports;
E) the volume of transfer payments.

76. To calculate the firm’s contribution to the created GNP, calculated by the amount of added value produced by employees, it is necessary to subtract from the market value of the created products:
A) the amount of wages of employees;
B) the amount of depreciation;
+C) cost of materials and raw materials;
D) rent;
E) the amount of interest on capital.

77. A price index can be used to:
A) assess the standard of living of the population in the base year;
C) determine the value of nominal GNP;
C) determine the level of nominal income of the population;
+D) assess the differences in the market value of the “commodity basket” of 2 different time periods;
E) determine the level of government spending in terms of GNP.

78. Gross national product is:
A) the total volume of products produced in the country during the year;
C) the total volume of products produced by households;
+C) the total market value of all final goods and services produced in the country’s economy during the year;
D) the sum of consumption and savings;
E) the cost of products produced in both the official and shadow economies.

79. What quantities does macroeconomics not study?
A) the general price level;
B) marginal utility;
+C) the overall level of employment in the country;
D) the overall unemployment rate in the country;
E) the value of nominal GNP.

80. The study of equilibrium price and equilibrium output in individual markets is called:
A) general equilibrium analysis;
+B) analysis of partial equilibrium;
C) analysis of general and partial equilibrium;
D) Walrasian equilibrium analysis;
E) Marshall equilibrium analysis.

81. Goals of calculating GNP:
A) monitoring the state of the economy;
C) formation of public policy;
C) determining the phase of the economic cycle;
D) assessment of the standard of living of the population;
+E) all answers are correct.

82. Calculation of GNP by income includes;
+A) depreciation;
C) indirect taxes on business;
C) rent and interest on capital;
D) corporate profits;
E) everything is correct.

83. Which of the following activities reduce net economic welfare:
A) production of consumer goods;
B) production of means of production;
+C) production and sale of drugs;
D) agricultural production;
E) production of complex household appliances.

84. GNP is 8000, C=3600, G=1200, exports=2400, imports=1700 million tenge. Calculate the amount of gross investment:
+A) 2500
B) 2700
C) 3250
D) 3700
E) 245

Aggregate demand and aggregate supply

85. The difference between the state of the economy in the long term and the short term is that:
A) monetary and fiscal policies affect output only in the long run
B) prices and nominal wages are relatively flexible only in the short run.
C) prices and nominal wages are relatively sticky only in the long run.
D) monetary and fiscal policies affect output only in the short run
+E) aggregate demand influences output and employment in the short run, while supply is the main factor determining output and employment in the long run

86. A reduction in the supply of money in the economy can be graphically represented by a shift:
A) left-upward AS curve
B) right-down AS curve
C) to the right and up the AD curve
+D) left-downward of the AD curve
E) left-upward curve AS and right-upward curve AD

87. In the long run, the level of output in the economy is determined by:
+A) the amount of capital and labor, as well as the technology used
B) offer of money
C) the level of government spending and taxes
D) preferences of the population
E) interest rate level

88. The classic version of the AS curve assumes that in the long run changes in aggregate demand:
A) will affect output but not the price level.
B) will not affect the level of prices and output
+C) will affect the price level, but not the volume of output
D) will affect both the price level and output
E) will affect the level of interest rates

89. If consumers decide to increase the share of income they spend on current consumption, then in the short run:
A) output and employment will decline first.
+B) first of all, output and employment will increase
C) the price level will increase, holding output and employment constant.
D) the price level will decrease, holding output and employment constant.
E) output will decrease and the price level will increase.

90. A negative supply shock (for example, rising energy prices) in the short term will cause:
A) an increase in prices and output
B) a fall in prices and output
C) falling prices and rising output
+D) rising prices and decreasing output
E) prices rise, but output remains unchanged.

91. The Keynesian version of the AS curve assumes that in the long run changes in aggregate demand:
+A) will affect the volume of output, but not the price level
B) will affect the price level but not the volume of output.
C) will not affect the price level and output
D) will influence both the price level and output
E) will shift the AS curve

92. If prices for imported goods have increased, it is most likely due to:
A) growth in aggregate supply
+B) reduction in aggregate supply
C) growth in aggregate demand
D) a fall in aggregate demand
E) an increase in real cash balances

93. If business taxes increase, then:
A) aggregate demand decreases, but aggregate supply remains unchanged.
B) aggregate demand and aggregate supply decrease
+C) aggregate supply decreases, but aggregate demand remains unchanged
D) aggregate demand and aggregate supply increase
E) it does not lead to changes in aggregate demand (supply)

94. A sharp drop in the real value of a stock, regardless of the level of other prices, may be the best example:
A) the effect of import purchases
+B) the effect of real cash balances
C) changes in consumer wealth
D) changes in consumer debt
E) changes in the macroeconomic policy of the state

95. In the neoclassical general economic equilibrium (GEE) model, the value of real NI will change if:
A) demand for real cash balances will increase.
B) the velocity of money will increase
C) demand for consumer goods will increase
+D) labor supply will increase
E) labor supply will decrease

96. In the Keynesian general economic equilibrium (GEE) model:
A) there is always underemployment
B) an increase in the money supply is always accompanied by an increase in real income.
+C) in general equilibrium, the sum of investment, government spending and exports is always equal to the sum of savings, taxes and imports
D) the aggregate demand curve always has a negative slope.
E) the aggregate demand curve always has a positive slope.

97. The fundamental difference between the state of the OER in the neoclassical model and the state of the OER in the Keynesian model is that:
+A) it is Pareto optimal only in the neoclassical model
B) it is Pareto optimal only in the Keynesian model
C) Say's law is observed only in the Keynesian model.
D) Walras's law is observed only in the Keynesian model
E) it is constantly violated

98. Research carried out in the direction of the “neoclassical synthesis” has shown that:
A) in the concepts of neoclassicals and Keynesians, the consumption of households in the OER state is determined by the same factors
B) with OER, the volume of money demand in the Keynesian concept exceeds that in the neoclassical concept
C) insufficient effective demand to achieve full employment in the Keynesian concept is explained by the inflexibility of the money wage rate
+D) the use of Keynesian functions of consumption, savings and investment is not enough to justify market unemployment under OER
E) they are not effective

99. The statement: “With an increase in the supply of money, the demand for goods will increase due to an increase in real cash balances,” expresses the essence:
A) Cambridge effect
B) the Keynes effect
C) Pigouvian effect
D) Fisher effect
+E) answers A, C are correct

100. From the generalized Keynesian model it follows that when autonomous demand for goods doubles, the price level:
A) will double
B) will more than double
C) will increase by less than double
D) will increase by 4 times
+E) cannot be clearly predicted

101. Keynesian segment on the aggregate supply curve:
A) has a positive slope or the curve is horizontal
B) negative slope
C) represented by a vertical line
D) has a negative slope or the curve is horizontal
+E) horizontal line

102. The classical aggregate supply curve shows that:
+A) the economy will always reach potential output, which does not depend on prices
B) as prices rise, total output increases
C) aggregate output is largely driven by aggregate demand.
D) the economy may or may not be at full employment depending on the level of aggregate output at each price level.
E) technologies are variable and the volume of output depends on costs and, accordingly, on the price level

103. The aggregate demand curve will shift up and to the right for all reasons except:
A) an increase in the real interest rate
C) an increase in the volume of real funds
C) growth in household consumption at all income levels
D) the government pursues a stimulating fiscal policy and increases government spending at all income levels
+E) rising prices, reducing real balances, increasing interest rates and reducing investment costs

104. For a simple economy with no government spending or taxes and no foreign trade, aggregate demand is equal to the sum of:
A) total income and investments.
B) consumption and total income.
C) consumption and savings.
D) personal savings and investments.
+E) consumption and investment.

105. Which of the following is not a supply shock?
A) A sharp change in resource prices.
B) Changes in the tax rate and government spending.
+C) Increased environmental protection costs associated with changes in legislation.
D) An increase in the speed of circulation of money due to the introduction of new banking settlement technologies.
E) A natural disaster, as a result of which a significant part of the economy's resources was lost.

106. Aggregate demand does not include:
A) consumer demand.
B) government demand.
+C) net imports.
D) investment demand.
E) net exports.

107. Aggregate demand is determined by development parameters:
+A) All sectors of the economy.
B) No sector of the economy affects aggregate demand.
C) Monetary and external sectors
D) Real and monetary sectors.
E) Monetary and budget sectors.

108. The shift in the graph of the aggregate supply function occurs due to:
A) the emergence of money illusions among entrepreneurs.
B) changes in the price level for given labor supply and demand functions.
C) shifting the intersection point of the IS and LM curves.
+D) changes in production technology.
E) changes in the money supply.

109. Which of the listed non-price determinants (factors) does not shift the aggregate supply curve to the right or left?
A) Changes in technology.
B) Changes in labor productivity.
+C) Resource price equilibrium.
D) Changes in resource prices.
E) Changes in regulatory and legal norms.

110. In Keynesian analysis, the main source of movements in aggregate output are:
+A) changes in investment demand.
B) MPS changes.
C) changes in consumer spending.
D) changes in consumer demand.
E) changes in MRS.

111. The aggregate demand and aggregate supply curve show:
A) Level of technological change.
B) A system of interrelated SNA indicators.
C) Reducing the duration of the recovery phase and increasing the depression phase.
D) Interest rate level.
+E) Factors that determine the price level and volume of output.

112. The shift of the aggregate demand curve to the right in the AD-AS model cannot reflect:
+A) An increase in the price level and a decrease in real GNP at the same time.
B) An increase in the price level in the absence of growth in real GNP.
C) Inflationary changes in the economy.
D) Growth in real GDP in the absence of price increases.
E) Increasing the price level and real GDP at the same time.

113. An increase in aggregate supply will cause:
+A) a decrease in the price level and an increase in real GNP.
B) prices and GDP will not change.
C) a slowdown in price growth and a decline in real GNP.
D) it is not possible to predict the dynamics of prices and real GNP.
E) a decrease in the price level and the real volume of GNP.

114. The relationship between aggregate demand and aggregate supply gives the following characteristics:
+A) The value of NNP at a given price level.
B) The amount of money in circulation.
C) ND values ​​at a given price level, equilibrium at the societal level.
D) SOP values ​​at a given price level.
E) Inflation rates.

115. The aggregate demand curve shows that:
A) Any decrease in actual output reduces the average price level.
B) For any decrease in the average price level, the level of actual output will also fall.
C) The level of spending falls as the price level increases.
+D) With any increase in the average price level, the level of actual output decreases.
E) At each price level there is an equal level of equilibrium actual output.

116. The shift in the graph of the aggregate supply function occurs due to:
+A) Changes in production technology.
B) Changes in the price level for given labor supply and demand functions.
C) The emergence of money illusions among entrepreneurs.
D) Shifting the intersection point of the IS and LM curves.
E) Change in the money supply.

117. Other things being equal, an increase in aggregate demand at full employment of resources leads to:
A) To inflation of demand.
B) To reduce the real interest rate.
C) Excess of exports over imports.
+D) To an increase in real interest rates.
E) To increase private investment.

118. Intermediate segment on the aggregate supply curve:
+A) Has a positive slope.
B) Has a negative slope.
C) Represented by a horizontal line.
D) Represented by a vertical line.
E) Represented as a bisector.

119. An increase in aggregate spending in the Keynesian model will lead to a shift in the aggregate demand curve:
A) to the left by the amount of reduction in total expenses multiplied by the value of the multiplier
+B) to the right by the amount of growth in total expenses multiplied by the value of the multiplier
C) to the left by the amount of growth in total expenses multiplied by the value of the multiplier
D) to the right by the amount of reduction in total expenses multiplied by the value of the multiplier
E) there are no correct answers

120. The multiple increase in NNP due to a slight increase in investment expenses is caused by:
+A) multiplier effect
B) the paradox of frugality
C) A. Smith effect
D) technical revolution
E) all answers are correct

121. A recessionary gap is:
+A) the amount by which total expenditures are less than the level of NNP at full employment
B) the amount by which total expenditure exceeds the level of NNP at full employment

D) equilibrium volume of NNP
E) amount of savings

122. Which of the listed concepts of classical macroeconomic theory was criticized by D. Keynes?
A) the principle of government intervention
C) the principle of equality of savings and investments
+C) the principle of government non-interference
D) the principle of inequality of savings and investments
E) all answers are correct

123. The inflation gap is:
A) the amount by which total expenditures are less than the level of NNP at full employment
+B) the amount by which total expenditure exceeds the level of NNP at full employment
C) the amount of total costs
D) equilibrium volume of NNP
E) amount of savings

124. If the volume of aggregate demand increases the level of GNP achieved under conditions of full employment, this means that in the economy:
A) there is a recessionary gap
+B) there is an inflationary gap
C) there will be an increase in production costs
D) there will be a decrease in production costs
E) partial equilibrium has been achieved

125. If the volume of equilibrium GNP turns out to be greater than its potential level, then:
+A) the price level will increase
B) the price level will decrease
C) the price level will not change
D) there will be an increase in production costs
E) there will be a decrease in production costs

126. The aggregate demand curve expresses the relationship between:
+A) price level and total costs for the purchase of goods and services
C) the price level and the produced volume of GNP in real terms


E) there is no correct answer

127. When the position of the economy corresponds to the Keynesian segment of the curve
aggregate supply, an increase in aggregate demand will lead to:
A) to reduce the volume of GNP in real terms, but will not affect the price level
+B) to increase the volume of GNP in real terms, but will not affect the price level
C) to a decrease in the volume of GNP in real terms and to a decrease in the price level
D) to an increase in the volume of GNP in real terms and to an increase in the price level
E) to an increase in the volume of GNP in real terms and to a decrease in the price level

128. The aggregate supply curve expresses the relationship between:
A) the price level and total costs for the purchase of goods and services
+B) the price level and the produced volume of GNP in real terms
C) the price level and total costs of production of goods and services
D) the price level and the level of disposable income
E) there is no correct answer

129. If the state tightens requirements for environmental conservation, this causes:
A) a decrease in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the left
+B) an increase in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the left
C) a decrease in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the right
D) an increase in production costs per unit of output and a shift of the aggregate supply curve to the right
E) there is no correct answer

Production and labor market

130. To study the short-term period in economics, an assumption is made about:
+A) Price inflexibility;
B) Increase in fixed costs;
C) Flexible investment rate;
D) Changes in factors of production;
E) Constant economies of scale in growth.

131. In the long run, an assumption is made about:
+A) Flexibility of prices and wages;
B) The constancy of all factors of production;
C) Rigidity of the investment rate;
D) Changing only the variable factor;
E) Diminishing economies of scale in growth.

132. The company will hire an additional worker for now (w/P - real wage; MPL - marginal product of labor).
A) w/P>MPL
+B) w/P=MPL
C) w/P=APL
D) w/P>APL
E) MPL =0

133. The production function in general is presented as:
+A) Y = F (K,L);
Y = F(K) – F(L);
K=F(L);
Y = F (K,L) – F (P);
E) Y = F(P);

134. Total income is equal to:
A) The amount of tenge received by producers as profit;
C) The total amount of tenge earned by workers;
+C) Total product of the economy;
The total rent collected by the owners of capital;
Total savings.

135. A competitive firm accepts:
+A) Prices for their manufactured products and factors of production as given;
C) Given prices for production products, but not for factors of production;
C) Given prices for factors of production, but not for their output;
Not specified prices for manufactured products or factors of production;
The decision is independent of market conditions.

136. The production function has the property of constant returns to scale:
A) if you increase capital and labor by 10%, then output will decrease by 10%;
C) if you increase capital and labor by 5%, then output will increase by 10%;
+C) if you increase capital and labor by 10%, then output will also increase by 10%; D) if you increase capital by Z1 and labor by Z2, then output will increase by Z3;
E) if you increase K by 10% and L by 5%, then output will increase by 7.5%.

137. What characterizes the marginal product of capital:
+A) how much output will increase when using an additional unit of capital;
B) how much output will decrease if an additional unit of capital is used;
C) level of technology;
D) the rate of replacement of capital with labor;
E) the rate of increase in the value of fixed capital.

138. According to what law, when an additional unit of capital is involved, the return on its use decreases.
+A) the law of marginal diminishing returns;
B) Okun's law;
C) the law of demand;
D) diminishing returns to scale of growth;
E) the law of rational expectations.

139. Which factor does not affect the growth of national income?
A) increasing labor productivity.
B) an increase in working hours in the field of material production.
+C) increase in the number of public sector employees.
D) increasing labor intensity.
E) an increase in the number of hired workers in the sphere of material production.

140. In the long run, the level of output in the economy is determined by:
A) Population preferences.
+B) The amount of capital and labor, as well as the level of technology used.
C) The level of interest rates.
D) The price level.
E) The supply of money, the level of government spending and taxes.

141. The production function Y = F (K, L) has constant returns to scale if:
A) F(K,L)=Yz.
B) F(zK,zL)=Y.
C) zF(K,L)=Y.
+D) F(zK,zL)=zY.
E) F(K,L)=Y.

142. The Keynesian model considers:
A) Price level.
+B) The functioning of the economy over relatively short periods of time.
C) Salary.
D) Production costs.
E) Product release.

143. If the production function has increasing returns to scale, then we observe:
A) mixed growth.
B) uncertainty.
C) decline in production.
D) extensive growth.
+E) intensive growth.

144. Capital-labor ratio is:
A) Capital produced over a long period of time.
+B) The amount of capital per worker.
C) The ratio of the number of workers to the monetary value of capital.
D) The number of shares owned by employees.
E) Capital produced during the year.

145. Equilibrium is established in the labor market when:
+A) The quantity of labor demanded is equal to the number of people employed in the economy.
B) The quantity of labor supplied is equal to the number of workers.
C) The marginal product of labor equals the price of labor demanded.
D) The marginal product of labor is equal to the supply price of labor;
E) The monetary value of the marginal product is equal to the nominal wage rate.

146. According to the classical model, when the labor market is in equilibrium, then:
+A) There is full employment.
B) Some people who want to work for real wages cannot find work.
C) Job vacancies arise because firms cannot hire the required number of workers.
D) Potential GNP is higher than actual GNP.
E) Taxes allow the labor market to achieve an efficient distribution of labor.

Market of goods

147. What taxes are indirect:
+A) excise taxes, value added tax
B) personal income tax
C) property tax
D) land tax
E) transport tax

148. The amount of consumption changed from 500 to 700 thousand tenge. The amount of disposable income changed from 10,000 to 14,000 thousand tenge. What is the marginal propensity to consume?
A) 0.05
B) 0.5
C) 0.25
D) 0.025
E) –0.5

149. If aggregate supply exceeds aggregate demand, provided that government spending and net exports are zero, then:
+A) the sum of consumption and investment spending equals saving
B) savings exceed planned investments.
C) saving equals investment
D) nominal output will remain unchanged.
E) real GDP will increase

150. The change in the value of autonomous consumption can be graphically represented as:
A) moving along the planned expenditure curve
+B) change in the slope of the planned expenditure curve
C) shift of the planned expenditure curve
D) movement along the consumption function curve as the level of income changes.
E) change in the slope of the consumption function curve

151. If households do not spend all their income on consumption and place the unspent amount in the bank, then they can be said to:
A) save but do not invest
B) both save and invest
+C) invest but do not save
D) do not save or invest
E) save but do not invest the portion of their savings that is used to purchase securities.

152. Let the investment function be given by the equation: I = 1000 - 30g, where r is the real interest rate. The nominal interest rate is 10%, the inflation rate is 2%. In this case, the volume of investment will be equal to:
+A) 240
B) 700
C) 970
D) 760
E) 1060

153. When planned consumption expenditure is 40 + 0.9Yd and planned investment is 50, then the equilibrium level of income is:
A) 90
B) 400
C) 500
D) 700
+E) 900

154. If consumer spending is 9,000, while disposable income is 10,000, then the average propensity to consume is:
A) 0.1
+B) 0.9
C) 9.0
D) 1.0
E) 10

155. If household consumption is characterized by the Keynesian short-run consumption function, then:
+A) marginal propensity to consume is constant
B) the average consumption rate is constant
C) the income elasticity of consumption is 1.
D) the marginal propensity to save is always greater than the average rate of consumption.
E) the marginal propensity to save is always less than the average rate of consumption.

156. The sum of the marginal propensities to consume and save disposable income is equal to 1:
A) with a linear consumption function
B) if the graph C (y) passes through the origin
C) only at equilibrium in the goods market
+D) always
E) only at equilibrium in the money market

157. The Keynesian consumption function characterizes the dependence
between:
A) real household consumption expenditures and the interest rate
+B) real household consumption expenditures and real income tax
C) nominal household consumption expenditures and the price level
D) nominal household consumption expenditures and nominal NI
E) nominal household consumption expenditures and the interest rate

158. In accordance with the multiplier theory, the increase in income is greater than the increase in investment due to the fact that:
A) only those projects are economically feasible if the amount of discounted income exceeds the volume of investment
+B) investment growth increases other components of aggregate demand
C) investment increases the production potential of the farm
D) the marginal efficiency of investment exceeds the interest rate.
E) investment reduces the production potential of the farm

159. The IS line will not change its original position if:
A) increases in government spending come from additional taxes
B) households will change their marginal propensity to save without changing the amount they save.
C) at any level of real income, savings will decrease by the amount of the increase in net exports
D) government spending is reduced through additional taxes.
+E) at any interest rate, investment will be reduced by the amount of additional government spending

160. What does coefficient b show in the consumption function C=a+b(Y-T):
+A) marginal propensity to consume
B) tax rate
C) wage rate
D) rent
E) autonomous consumption

161. According to Keynes’ theory, the average propensity to consume APC = C / (Y-T) in the short term:
A) does not change
B) increases as disposable income increases.
+C) falls as disposable income increases
D) equal to zero
E) does not depend on disposable income, but depends on the interest rate

162. Net investment is:
A) gross investment + depreciation
+B) gross investment - depreciation
C) increase in the value of fixed capital
D) gross investment - subsidies
E) depreciation - increase in the value of fixed capital

163. If the reason for the increase in investment is an increase in national income, then such investments are called:
A) straight
B) portfolio
C) autonomous
+D) induced
E) clean

164. Marginal propensity to consume: MPC = 0.6. Planned investments increase by 10 million dollars, then total income (in million dollars):
+A) will increase by 25
B) will increase by 10
C) will decrease by 6
D) will increase by 18
E) will increase by 6

165. National savings are:
A) foreign currency reserves
B) funds in bank accounts
+C) the sum of private and public savings
D) the amount of foreign currency in circulation among the population of the country
E) budget surplus or deficit

166. Given the consumption function C=25+0.7(Y-T). Give an economic interpretation of the coefficients of this function:
+A) autonomous consumption is 25, out of 1 tenge of disposable income 0.7 goes to consumption, and 0.3 to savings
B) savings increase by 0.3 as disposable income increases, and consumption decreases by 0.7
C) savings are equal to 25, and consumption decreases when income increases by 0.3
D) saving is 0.7 and consumption is 25
E) C= 25.7 and it increases with increasing disposable income

167. Investment is 220, budget surplus is 10, export is 175, import is 185. Determine private savings:
A) 20
B) 210
C) 180
D) 150
+E) 200

168. Suppose that GNP Y = 3000, consumption is given by the consumption function C = 800 +0.7 (U-T), investment I = 600 - 80 r, where r is the real interest rate. Taxes are 600, and government spending is 400. Find the equilibrium interest rate:
A) 6.5%
AT 5 %
C) 5.5%
+D) 6%
E) 4%

169. The effect of a budget surplus on the equilibrium level of GDP turns out to be essentially the same as:
A) reduction in savings
B) increased investment
C) increased consumption
+D) increase in savings
E) reducing consumption

170. Some corporations pay constant dividends throughout all phases of the business cycle. This affects the economic situation:
A) as a factor in increasing the amplitude of cyclic oscillations
B) neutral
+C) as a built-in (automatic) stabilizer
D) as a factor in reducing the amplitude of cyclic oscillations
E) in an indeterminate manner, depending on the factors that caused the cyclical fluctuations

171. An increase in government spending increases real GNP only if:
A) government spending is directed to the purchase of goods and services, and not to pay officials
+B) government spending does not crowd out an equal amount of spending in the non-state sector
C) government spending is accompanied by an increase in the money supply.
D) government spending is financed by issuing government loans.
E) government spending is accompanied by a decrease in the money supply

172. Change in price level:
A) does not affect the results of fiscal policy
B) enhances the effect of fiscal measures
C) practically absent in the implementation of fiscal policy
D) increases the multiplier effects of government spending and taxes.
+E) reduces the effectiveness of fiscal policy measures

173. The economy is in equilibrium, with the marginal propensity to save equal to 0.25 and the marginal propensity to import equal to zero. How will the equilibrium level of output change if the government increases its purchases by 2 billion rubles without changing tax revenues?
+A) will increase by 8 billion rubles.
B) will increase by 6 billion rubles.
C) will increase by 4 billion rubles.
D) will increase by 2 billion rubles.
E) will decrease by 8 billion rubles.

174. Determine the effect of increasing government spending in the IS-LM model:
+A)DY = D G*(1/(1-MPC))
B) D Y = D T *(1/(1-MPC))
C) DY =DG *(-MPC/(MPC-1))
D) DY = D G*(-MPC/(1-MPC))
E) DY=DG*(1/(1-MPS))

175. The following structure of the economy is given:
C=0.8(Y-T); I= 20 - 0.24r G=10 T=20 Ms =50 Md=(0.5Y-r)P
Find the expression for the IS curve:
+A) Y=70-12r
B) Y=70-1.2r
C) Y=230-1.2r
D) Y=230-12r
E) Y=70+1.2r

176. Using the data, find the government spending multiplier
C=0.8(Y-T); I= 20 - 0.24r; G=10; T=20; Ms =50; Md=(0.5Y- r)P.
A) -4
B) -5
C) 1.25
D) -1.25
+E) 5

177. Determine how output will be affected by an increase in government spending to G = 12; C=0.8(Y-T); I= 20 - 0.24r; G=10; T=20; Ms =50; Md=(0.5Y- r)P;
+A) output will increase by 10 units
B) output will decrease by 20 units
C) output will decrease by 10 units
D) output will increase by 20 units
E) output will not change

178. What applies to private savings:
+A) disposable income minus consumption;
B) taxes minus government spending;
C) taxes minus consumption expenditures;
D) GNP minus consumption and government spending;
E) GNP minus consumption expenditures.

179. If in the equilibrium model of a closed economy the interest rate is above the equilibrium level, then:
+A) the volume of savings exceeds investment, the supply of borrowed funds is higher than the demand for them, the interest rate decreases;
C) the volume of savings is less than the amount of investment, the supply of borrowed funds is less than the demand for them, the interest rate rises;
C) the volume of savings exceeds investment, the supply of borrowed funds is less than the demand for them, the interest rate decreases;
the volume of savings is less than investment, the supply of borrowed funds is higher than the demand for them, the interest rate decreases;
E) the volume of savings exceeds investment, the supply of borrowed funds outstrips the demand for them, the interest rate rises;

180. Given the consumption function C=120 + 0.2(Y-T). Define the savings function:
+A) S=-120 +0.8(Y-T);
B) S= 120 + 0.8(Y-T);
C) S=-120 +0.2(Y-T);
D) S= 120 - 0.2(Y-T);
E) S=-120 - 0.8(Y-T).

181. Basic provisions of Keynes’ theory of consumption:
+A) The influence of the interest rate is insignificant, consumption depends on current income and with income growth it decreases on average;
C) APC and MPC values ​​greater than one;
C) APC increases as income increases and then becomes stable:
D) The influence of the interest rate is manifested in the discounting of future consumption;
E) The influence of the interest rate is significant; consumption depends not only on current income, and as income increases, it grows on average.

182. Profit is:
+A) Total annual income minus total costs;
C) The price of the product produced minus the price of the resource expended;
C) The amount of money paid by a company annually to its shareholders in the form of dividends;
The amount of money earned by the company's managers;
E) The company's revenue received from the sale of products.

183. What characterizes (U-T) in the consumption function C=a+b(Y-T):
+A) disposable income;
B) consumer costs;
C) salary level;
D) the amount of invested funds;
E) the amount of taxes.

184.The consumption function C=a+b(Y-T) was justified:
+A) Keynes;
B) Marshal;
C) Lucas;
D) Modigliani;
E) Fischer.

185. Which graph from the following corresponds to the consumption function C=a+b(Y-T):
+A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

186. In the consumption function C=a+b(Y-T) with disposable income equal to zero, consumption is equal to:
+A) a;
B)b;
C) a+b;
D) 0;
E) –b.

187. What parts is the consumer’s income divided into:
+A) consumption and savings;
B) consumption and investment;
C) investments and loans;
D) lending and investment;
E) savings and lending.

188. Who has proven that the marginal propensity to consume varies from zero to one.
+A) Keynes;
B) Marshall;
C) Modigliani;
D) Fischer;
E) Oaken.

189. Determine the amount of consumption for the function C=2500+0.5(U-T), if the income level is U=10000 tenge, taxes T=1000 tenge.
+A) 7000;
B) 2500;
C) 4500;
D) 2000;
E) 9000.

190. Consumer income is 10,000 tenge, consumption is 7,000 tenge. What is the amount of savings:
+A) 3000;
B) 17000;
C) 10000;
D) 7000;
E) 0.

191. Simon Kuznets proved that in the long run, with an increase in disposable income, the average propensity to consume:
+A) constant;
B) falls;
C) grows;
D) equal to zero;
E) does not depend on disposable income.

192. Modern people keep their savings in banks and receive interest. Keynes did not consider the influence of which macroeconomic indicator on the level of consumption in the consumption function they constructed:
+A) interest rate;
B) budget constraint;
C) marginal rate of substitution;
D) level of utility;
E) tax level.

193. Tax reduction:
A) Shifts the planned expenditure curve down and the IS curve to the left.
+B) Shifts the planned expenditure curve upward and the IS curve to the right.
C) Shifts the planned expenditure curve and the IS curve.
D) Shifts the planned expenditure curve down and the IS curve to the right.
E) Shifts the planned expenditure curve upward and the IS curve to the left.

194. In a full employment economy, high rates of economic growth require:
A) high rates of saving and investment.
B) high savings rates and low investment rates.
+C) low saving rates and high investment rates.
D) low savings and investment rates.
E) lower rates of savings and investment.

195. The marginal propensity to consume is:
A) The change in consumer income caused by a change in income.


+D) The ratio of the increase in consumer spending per unit increase in disposable income.

196. Factors determining the dynamics of consumption and savings are:
+A) Income from rational economic levels of savings and consumption.
B) Taxation level.
C) Household income.
D) Price level.
E) Economic expectations.

197.The simple government expenditure multiplier model expresses the growth ratio:
A) income to investment growth.
B) money supply to income growth.
C) taxes on income gains.
+D) increase in income to increase in government spending.
E) investments to increase savings.

198. The following data are available: income Y = 5000, government spending G = 1000, taxes T = 900. What will be the size of the state budget deficit?
A) 50.
B) 200.
+C) 100.
D)150.
E) 250.

199. Choose the correct relationship between investment and interest rate:
+A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

200. In the investment function I=e-dr, what will the investment be equal to at a zero interest rate?
+A) e;
B) d;
C) e-d;
D) –e;
E) 0.

201. In calculating national income, investment is:
+A) Purchase, by your family, of a new construction house;
B) Construction of a log house by a carpenter;
C) Purchase of a Picasso painting for $20 million by the Museum of Modern Art;
D) Purchase of a Kazakhstan treasury bond worth 1000 tenge;
E) All of the above.

202. What applies to investments:
+A) Purchase by an entrepreneur of new equipment for bread production;
B) Major renovation of a residential building;
C) Purchase of securities;
D) Sale of inventory from a warehouse to another company;
E) Investing funds in a bank account.

203. What type of investment shows a change in real capital:
+A) Clean;
B) Induced;
C) Renovation;
D) Portfolio;
E) Autonomous.

204. If the reason for the increase in investment is an increase in national income, then such investments are called:
+A) Induced.
B) Portfolio.
C) Autonomous.
D) Straight.
E) Clean.

205. Which of the following activities, represented as investments, is counted in national income?
+A) Your family bought a new construction house.
C) You bought treasury notes worth 1000 tenge.
C) Art Gallery named after. Shevchenko bought Glazunov’s painting for 20,000 tenge.
D) You are buying a plot of land for the construction of a private house.
E) You bought a vacation package.

206. In the consumption function C=a+b(Y-T) with disposable income equal to zero, consumption is equal to:
+A) a
B)b
C) a+b
D) 0
E) -b

207. The marginal tax rate expresses the relationship between the increase in taxes and:
+A) The volume of government spending.
B) Budget increase.
C) Increase in investment.
D) The volume of money supply.
E) An increase in income.

208. How will the equilibrium GNP change if the state increases its purchases by 2 billion tenge at MPC = 0.75:
A) Will increase by 2 billion tenge.
B) Increase by 6 billion tenge.
C) Increase by 4 billion tenge.
D) Will decrease by 4 billion tenge.
+E) Will increase by 8 billion tenge.

209. The share of disposable income allocated to consumption is:
A) Autonomous consumer spending.
B) Threshold income.
+C) Average propensity to consume.
D) Marginal propensity to consume.
E) Personal income.

210. Which of the following relationships expresses the inverse relationship between:
+A) Investment costs and interest rate levels.
B) Consumer spending and disposable income.
C) Savings and interest rate levels.
D) Investment expenditures and national income.
E) The price level and output volume.

211. Net investments include:
+A) Construction of a warehouse for finished products.
B) Purchase of a passenger car by a household.
C) Replacement of worn-out equipment with new ones.
D) The firm's purchase of a plot of land.
E) Transfer payments from the state to the population.

212. D. Keynes argues that the level of consumption depends on:
+A) Level of disposable income.
B) Age of family members.
C) The consumer's place of residence.
D) Consumer taste.
E) Interest rates.

213. C=0.6Y + 200. I = 500. The equilibrium value of national income will be:
+A) 1750
B) 1167
C) 700
D) 500
E) 833

214. The IS curve reflects:
A) All combinations of ND and interest rate levels that ensure equilibrium in the money market.
+B) The relationship between the interest rate and the level of income that arises in the market for goods and services.
C) Reducing value added taxes.
D) The minimum price that buyers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods.
E) A change in the quantity demanded caused by a change in real income.

215. If the consumption function has the form C = 100+0.8(U-T) and both values ​​of tax and government purchases decrease by 1 tenge, the equilibrium level of income:
+A) Will increase by 1 tenge.
B) Increase by 5 tenge.
C) Will decrease by 4 tenge.
D) Will decrease by 1 tenge.
E) Will remain constant.

216. On the graph of the consumption function, a line at an angle of 45° to the coordinate axes allows you to find:
+A) Points where household expenditures equal income.
B) The amount that households save at each income level.
C) Points where saving and investment are equal.
D) Points where savings are greatest.
E) The amounts that households consume at each income level.

217. In the Keynesian cross model, the 45° line shows that:
A) GNP decreases whenever consumption increases.
B) Actual expenses equal income.
+C) The equilibrium level of income decreases whenever actual spending increases.
D) Planned expenditures equal the country's output.
E) After an exogenous imbalance, the ND value monotonically
rushes into infinity.

218. What factors do investments not depend on:
A) From the expected rate of return.
B) From the alternative investment opportunity and the level of interest rates.
C) On the level of taxation.
D) On the inflation rate.
+E) From the payroll fund.

219. If the amount of disposable income decreases, then, all other things being equal:
A) Both consumer spending and savings decrease.
B) Consumer spending and saving increase.
C) Consumer spending increases and savings decreases.
+D) Consumer spending decreases and savings increases.
E) Prices decrease.

220. When analyzing the Keynesian cross, the condition for equilibrium in a closed economy is equality:
+A) Supply of money = demand for money.
B) Expenditures = consumption + planned investments + government spending.
C) Actual saving = actual investment.
D) Income = consumption + investment + government spending.
E) Actual expenses = planned expenses.

221. Unplanned investments are associated with:
A) Production investments.
B) Actual investment with constant sales.
C) Investments in inventory when costs change.
D) Investments in housing construction.
+E) Received government orders.

222. Private savings formula:
A) S=(U-T)+(T-C)
B) S=U-T
C) S=T-G
D) S=(Y-T)=(T-G)
+E) S=Y-T-C

223. In a closed economy, the level of investment is:
+A) Savings.
B) Firms' profits.
C) Net interest.
D) The amount of loans.
E) The amount of loans.

224. If people do not spend all their income on consumption and put the unspent amount in the bank, then they:
+A) save but do not invest
B) save and invest
C) invest but do not save
D) do not save or invest
E) there is no correct answer

225. The “threshold level” point of the individual consumption function is the point at which:
A) income is greater than consumption
+B) income = consumption
C) income is less than consumption
D) MPC=0
E) consumption = saving

226. Keynes argues that the volume of consumer spending in a country depends primarily on:
+A) from the level of GNP
B) on the level of government spending
C) on the level of investment expenses
D) on the level of disposable income
E) all answers are correct

227. Say’s Law fixes the connection between:
A) production and income
B) income and expenses
C) costs and investments
D) production and costs
+E) production, income and costs

228. Which of the following is included in the concept of “withdrawal”?
+A) savings
B) investments
C) capital investment
D) investments and savings
E) there is no correct answer

229. The marginal propensity to save is:
+A) The ratio of the change in savings to the change in income that caused it.
B) A curve characterizing the amount of consumer income.
C) The ratio of total consumption to total income.
D) The ratio of the increase in consumer spending per unit increase in disposable income.
E) A curve characterizing the amount of consumer spending at a given price level.

230. The paradox of frugality is that:
A) society's attempts to save more may result in more savings.
+B) society's attempts to save more may result in the same or less actual savings.
C) society's attempts to save more may lead to a decrease in the producer's business activity.
D) society's attempts to save more may lead to slower economic development of households.
E) all answers are correct

Money market

231. If real GNP increases by 1.2 times and the money supply increases by 8%, then the price level at a stable velocity of money circulation:
A) will increase by 10%
B) will increase by 11%
+C) will decrease by 10%
D) will decrease by 20%
E) will remain unchanged

232. The money supply will increase if:
A) the reservation rate will increase
+B) the monetary base will increase
C) the cash-deposit ratio will increase.
D) the money multiplier will decrease
E) real GDP will decrease

233. If the nominal supply of money increases by 5%, the price level increases by 4%, then, with a constant velocity of circulation of money, in accordance with the quantity theory, real income:
+A) will increase by 1%
B) will increase by 9%
C) will decrease by 1%
D) will decrease by 9%
E) will increase by 10%

234. Assume that the money supply and price level are constant. Then, if the level of income in the money market increases:
A) the demand for money will increase and the interest rate will decrease
B) the demand for money will decrease and the interest rate will increase.
C) the demand for money and the interest rate will decrease.
+D) the demand for money and the interest rate will increase
E) there will be no changes

235. Let the demand for cash be 10% of the amount of deposits. The reservation rate is 0.15. If the National Bank decides to expand the money supply by 330 billion tenge, it must:
+A) increase the monetary base by 75 billion tenge
B) reduce the monetary base by 75 billion tenge
C) increase the monetary base by 330 billion tenge
D) reduce the monetary base by 330 billion tenge
E) increase the monetary base by 49.5 billion tenge

236. Which of the following is not included in the M2 unit?
A) cash outside the banking system
B) small savings deposits
C) checkable deposits
D) travelers checks
+E) short-term government bonds

237. Bank deposits increased by 200 million tenge. The reservation rate at this time was 20%. What is the potential increase in the money supply?
+A) 1000 million tenge
B) 400 million tenge
C) 600 million tenge
D) 800 million tenge
E) 1200 million tenge

238. The required reserve ratio is 0.15. There are no excess reserves. The demand for cash is 40% of the volume of deposits. The amount of reserves is 60 billion tenge. What is the money supply?
A) 400 billion tenge
+B) 560 billion tenge
C) 600 billion tenge
D) 650 billion tenge
E) 1000 billion tenge

239. The basis for the allocation of monetary aggregates Ml, M2, MZ is:
+A) the degree of their liquidity
B) the speed of their circulation
C) the extent to which they are exposed to inflation.
D) the functions they perform
E) convenience of account

240. Inflation has the least impact on the function of money as a means:
A) measurement of value
B) preservation of value
+C) payment
D) real estate purchases
E) appeals

241. The decisive factor for the National Bank that determines the amount of money offered is:
A) change in its foreign exchange reserves
B) the state of the trade balance
C) change in government debt to the National Bank
+D) ensuring the stability of the national currency
E) reservation rate

242. The amount of M1 decreases when:
A) commercial banks buy foreign currency from the National Bank for their clients
B) the client deposits cash into a commercial bank to open a demand deposit
C) the supermarket's daily earnings are burned during a fire.
D) commercial banks send worn-out banknotes to the National Bank for destruction
+E) answers A, C are correct

243. When the National Bank sells government securities to commercial banks, then:
A) government debt increases
B) the current interest rate decreases.
C) commercial bank loans increase
+D) excess reserves of commercial banks decrease
E) excess reserves of commercial banks increase

244. The slope of the LM line depends on:
A) velocity of money circulation
B) investment multiplier values
+C) marginal propensity to prefer money as property
D) money multiplier values
E) reservation standards

245. When the money supply depends on the interest rate, then when real income increases, the interest rate compared to its value under conditions of a fixed money supply:
A) will increase by a large amount
+B) will increase by a smaller amount
C) will decrease by a large amount
D) will decrease by a smaller amount
E) will not change

246. In conditions of a steady increase in the price level, the demand for real cash balances:
+A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains unchanged
D) unpredictable
E) directly proportional to the velocity of money circulation

247. Equilibrium in the money market can be maintained if:
A) simultaneously with the increase in the monetary base, the discount rate will be lowered
+B) a slowdown in the velocity of money circulation is accompanied by a decrease in the minimum reserve coverage ratio
C) as real income increases, the demand for money as property will increase.
D) as real income increases, the interest rate will decrease.
E) there will be no change in the interest rate

248. If the National Bank decides to reduce the money supply, it can:
+A) increase the required reserve ratio
B) purchase government bonds on the open market
C) reduce the discount rate
expand financing for business structures
E) reduce the required reserve ratio

249. If the money supply is $200 billion, and the increase in the money supply was $400 billion, then the money multiplier is equal to:
A) 2
B) 3.33
C) 2.9
+D) 3
E) cannot be determined

250. The National Bank buys $8 million worth of securities on the open market with a money multiplier of 2.4 - the volume of money supply can:
A) increase by 8
+B) increase by 19.2
C) will decrease by 19.2
D) decrease by 16.5
E) increase by 16.5

251. The level of nominal income in the economy is 2400 billion dollars, the nominal money supply is 800 billion dollars. In accordance with the quantitative equation, the velocity of money circulation is equal to:
+A) 3
C) 3200 billion dollars
C) 8
D) 5
E) 1600 billion dollars.

252. Reserves of commercial banks amount to 1 billion tenge. Deposits are equal to 4 billion tenge. The required reserve ratio is 25%. If the National Bank decides to reduce the required reserve ratio to 20%, by what amount can the money supply increase?
A) by 0.8 billion tenge
+B) by 1 billion tenge
C) by 0.2 billion tenge
D) by 0.4 billion tenge
E) by 1.2 billion tenge

253. The reserve ratio is 0.25. Through open market operations, the National Bank can increase the money supply by a maximum of 440 billion tenge. In this case he must:
A) buy back bonds in the amount of 1760 billion tenge
B) sell bonds in the amount of 110 billion tenge
C) sell bonds in the amount of 440 billion tenge
+D) buy back bonds in the amount of 110 billion tenge
E) buy back bonds in the amount of 1100 billion tenge

254. The required reserve ratio is 0.1. The state budget has a deficit of 300 billion tenge. The government decides to cover 1/3 of the deficit by issuing money, and 2/3 by issuing bonds. How might the money supply change if the Central Bank buys a quarter of the bonds issued by the government?
A) the money supply may increase by 500 billion tenge
B) the money supply may decrease by 400 billion tenge
+C) money supply may increase by 600 billion tenge
D) the money supply may increase by 1500 billion tenge
E) the money supply may decrease by 1400 billion tenge

255. The cash-deposit ratio (cr) is equal to 10%, the value of deposits (D) is equal to 100 billion tenge, then the money supply is equal to:
+A) 110 billion tenge
B) 10 billion tenge
C) 90 billion tenge
D) 100 billion tenge
E) 1100 billion tenge

256. The banking multiplier is equal to 4. The maximum additional amount of money that the banking system can “create” is equal to 40 billion tenge. Then the required reserve ratio and the amount that banks used to issue loans will be:
A) 40% and 4 billion tenge
B) 40% and 10 billion tenge
C) 25% and 2.5 billion tenge
D) 25% and 14 billion tenge
+E) 25% and 10 billion tenge

257. The operational demand for money changes as follows:
A) increases as interest rates rise.
B) decreases as nominal GNP increases.
+C) decreases as nominal GNP decreases
D) increases as interest rates fall.
E) does not respond to GNP dynamics

258. Dear money policy:
A) carried out during unemployment and economic downturn
B) purchasing government securities on the open market
+C) a reduction in the money supply and an increase in the interest rate
D) lowering the norm of required assets
E) lowering the discount rate

259. The term “discount rate” means:
A) the rate of government bonds at which the National Bank buys them on the open market
+B) the interest rate at which the National Bank provides loans to commercial banks
C) increase in the total volume of CB reserves
D) the degree of influence of the National Bank on the growth of the money supply and the volume of GNP
E) income

260. Find an expression for the LM curve, assuming that the price level is P = 2;
C=0.8(Y-T); I= 20 - 0.24r; G=10; T=20; Ms =50; Md=(0.5Y- r)P;
A) Y=100-2r
B) Y=50-2r
C) Y=100+2r
+D) Y=50+2r
E) Y=50- 0.5r

261. If the nominal money supply is equal to 600 billion dollars, and the velocity of circulation of money is 6, then the level of nominal income (in billion dollars) in this economy is equal to:
+A) 3600;
B) 100;
C) 1000;
D) 2400;
E) 600.

262. Suppose that the product of the economy is potatoes and 1000 kg of potatoes are sold in a given year at a price of 0.25 tenge per kg. The amount of money in the economy is 100 tenge. The velocity of money circulation will be equal to:
+A) 2.5;
B) 1.5;
C) 0.4;
D) 5;
E)25.

263. There is money:
+A) All of the above;
C) The number of tenge in the hands of the population;
C) A measure of accumulation of value and settlement;
D) Amount of assets used for transactions;
E) Means of payment.

264. If the National Bank decides to reduce the money supply, it can:
+A) increase the required reserve ratio;
C) purchase government bonds on the open market;
C) reduce the discount rate;
expand financing for business structures;
E) reduce the required reserve ratio.

265. The bank has a 15% required reserve ratio. If the bank has 10,000 on deposit
dollars, what amount the bank can provide on credit:
+A) 8500;
B) 10000;
C) 1500;
D) 11500;
E) 7500

266. Which of the following events could cause an imbalance in the money supply:
+A) all of the above.
C) commercial banks deliberately increase additional reserves;
C) the population suddenly prefers to hold more cash on hand;
D) most of the loans from commercial banks to the population are not in demand;
E) The National Bank increases the required reserve ratio;

267. If the money supply is $200 billion, and the increase in the money supply was $400 billion, then the money multiplier is equal to:
+A) 3;
B) 3.33;
C) 2.9;
D) 2;
E) cannot be determined.

268. The National Bank buys $8 million worth of securities on the open market with a money multiplier of 2.4 - the volume of money supply can:
+A) increase by 19.2;
B) increase by 8;
C) will decrease by 19.2;
D) decrease by 16.5;
E) increase by 16.5;

269. If the consumption function has the form C = 100+0.8(U-T) and both taxes and government purchases decrease by 1 tenge, the equilibrium level of income:
+A) will increase by 1 tenge;
C) will increase by 5 tenge;
C) will decrease by 4 tenge;
D) will decrease by 1 tenge;
E) will remain constant.

270. Suppose that the economy is described by the following equations:

G = 150; T = 100;


+A) 10%;
B) 29%;
C) 5%;
D) 15%;
E) 24%.

271. If households save 10 cents for every extra dollar they receive, the multiplier is:
+A) 10;
AT 5;
C) 9;
D) 4.4;
E) 1.

272. The amount of deposits in the Central Bank and its cash on hand:
+A) Actual reserves.
B) Excess reserves.
C) Demand deposits.
D) Money multiplier.
E) Nominal interest rate

273. The M2 monetary aggregate includes:
+A) amount of cash, perpetual (current) deposits, small time deposits.
B) amount of cash, fixed-term, time deposits, certificates, government bonds.
C) government bonds and certificates.
D) amount of cash, perpetual (current) deposits.
E) cash amount only.

274. For a given volume of nominal money supply, price increases:
A) Leads to increased investment costs.
B) Has no effect on real balances or the equilibrium interest rate.
C) Leads to a decrease in the equilibrium interest rate.

E) Reduces the volume of real balances.

275. Purchasing power of money:
A) does not change with inflation.
B) is not subject to change due to deflation.
C) decreases during deflation.
+D) decreases during periods of inflation.
E) increases during periods of inflation.

276. An increase in the supply of money will shift the curve:
+A) LM down (right).
B) IS to the right.
C) will not affect the shifts of the IS and LM curves.
D) IS to the left.
E) LM up (left).

277. If the amount of money in circulation increases, then this is the result:
+A) Reducing the share of cash in the total amount of means of payment of the population.
B) Increasing the required reserve ratio.
C) Reducing the required reserve ratio.
D) Increasing the monetary base.
E) Reducing excess reserves of commercial banks.

278. Full convertibility of the national currency means:
+A) The ability to freely exchange the currency of a given country for the national currency of any other country.
B) Possibility of free export and import of national currency.
C) Reducing government spending.
D) Possibility of purchasing foreign currency without restrictions.
E) Increased activity of migration flows.

279. Which of the following events may not cause a money supply imbalance?
A) The National Bank increases the required reserve ratio;
+B) the population suddenly prefers to hold more cash on hand;
C) most of the loans from commercial banks to the population are not in demand;
D) commercial banks deliberately increase additional reserves;
E) The National Bank reduces the required reserve ratio.

280. The most liquid asset is:
+A) Cash.
B) Savings deposit.
C) Shares of an oil company.
D) Government bond.
E) Share in a car company.

281. Equation of monetarism:
A) C+I+Xn=ChNP
B) S =T-G
C) I = S
+D) MV = PY
E) Y = f(K.L)

282. Under what conditions is the LM curve relatively flat?
A) The marginal tax rate is low.
B) The marginal propensity to save is high.
C) The marginal propensity to consume is high.
+D) The sensitivity of the demand for money to the dynamics of the market interest rate is high and small to the dynamics of GNP.
E) The marginal propensity to import is low.

283. If the Central Bank maintains a policy of stabilizing output, then, when faced with an adverse supply shock, it should:
A) Reduce money supply.
B) Reduce tax rates.
C) Reduce government spending.
+D) Increase government spending.
E) Increase the money supply.

284. Active operations of commercial banks include:
A) Debt financing.
B) Acceptance of deposits.
C) Issue of securities.
+D) Providing loans.
E) Financing obligations to other banks.

285. Large time deposits are included in:
A) M2.
B) Ml.
+C) MZ.
D) MS.
E) MO.

286. If the nominal interest rate is 10% and the price level increases by three percent per year, the real interest rate is:
A) 3%.
B) 13%.
+C) -7%.
D) 7%.
E) -3%.

287. Deflation is:
+A) Decrease in the general price level in the economy.
B) Decrease in the rate of inflation.
C) The fall of the national currency.
D) Decrease in the purchasing power of money.
E) A general increase in the price level in the economy.

288. If the nominal interest rate is 10% and the inflation rate is 4% per year, then the real interest rate will be:
A) 14%.
+B) 6%.
C) 2.5%.
D) 0.1%.
E) 0.4%.

289. If the required reserve ratio is 100%, then the value of the money multiplier is equal to:
A) 0.
+B) 1.
C) 100.
D) 10.
E) -l.

290. Demand for money from assets:
A) Directly proportional to the interest rate.
+B) Inversely proportional to the interest rate.
C) Inversely proportional to the volume of GDP.
D) Directly proportional to the volume of GDP.
E) Does not depend on the interest rate.

291. To carry out a contractionary monetary policy, the Central Bank must:
A) Increase the issuance of loans from commercial banks.
B) Reduce the interest rate.
+C) Increase the required reserve ratio.
D) Reduce the required reserve ratio.
E) Buy government securities.

292. What is cash currency?
+A) Foreign banknotes and cash.
B) Holdings in foreign banks.
C) Checks on foreign banks.
D) Bills of exchange for foreign drawees.
E) Deposits in foreign currency.

293. Regulation of the discount rate is an element:
+A) Monetary policy.
B) Selective credit regulation.
C) Regulation of bank reserves.
D) Transactions related to the purchase and sale of securities.
E) Fiscal policy.

294. What goal does the Central Bank pursue by changing the discount rate?
A) Price stabilization.
B) Increase in state budget revenues.
C) Protecting the economy from the expansion of foreign capital.
+D) Balance of payments equalization.
E) Mitigation of cyclical fluctuations.

295. For a given volume of the nominal money supply, price increases:
A) Leads to an increase in the equilibrium interest rate.
B) Increases the volume of real balances.
C) Leads to increased investment costs.
+D) Leads to a decrease in consumer spending.
E) Has no effect on real balances or the equilibrium interest rate.

296. If the Central Bank buys government securities from the population then:
A) The total amount of money in the hands of the population decreases.
B) Commercial banks' current accounts decrease.
+C) The amount of money in circulation increases.
D) The interest rate rises.
E) Taxes are reduced.

297. If prices rise, then:
A) The demand for money decreases and the interest rate increases.
+B) Security holders increase spending.
C) Security holders have increased purchasing power.
D) The demand for money increases and the interest rate decreases.
E) The demand for money and the level of interest rates increase.

298. Monetarists believe that:
A) Market economies are internally unstable.
B) Government intervention reduces the stability of the market economy.
+C) Discretionary fiscal policy is necessary.
D) In ​​a modern market economy there is no free competition.
E) It is necessary to implement a non-discretionary fiscal policy.

299. Macroeconomic theory that highlights the role of money in economic development is:
+A) Monetarism.
B) Keynesianism.
C) Rational Expectations Theory.
D) The theory of supply-side economics.
E) Institutionalism.

300. Which of the functions of money is called incorrectly?
A) Measure of value.
B) Medium of exchange.
+C) A measure of income.
D) Means of payment.
E) World money.

301. The monetary base consists of:
A) C+D+R
+B)C+R
C) D+R
D) C+D
E) R/D

Model IS-LM

302. The IS-LM model for a closed economy and the Mundell-Fleming model assume:
A) fixed interest rate
B) fixed exchange rate
C) interest rate flexibility
+D) fixed price level
E) price flexibility

303. If an investment becomes very interest rate sensitive:
A) the IS curve becomes steeper.
+B) the IS curve becomes flatter
C) the LM curve becomes steeper.
D) the LM curve becomes flatter.
E) equilibrium will not be achieved in the IS-LM model

304. Suppose that the economy is described by the following equations:
C = 125+0.75(U-T); I = 200-10r;
G = 150; T = 100;
(M/P) = 800; (M\P) = L(r, Y) = 0.8Y-16r.
Equilibrium in the goods market and money market is achieved at an interest rate equal to:
+A) 10%
B) 29%
C) 5%
D) 15%
E) 24%

305. An increase in the money supply shifts the LM curve to the right by the amount (1/k) * (∆M/P) together with a change in equilibrium income by approximately the same amount, provided that:
A) LM and IS curves are relatively steep
B) the LM curve is relatively flatter than the IS curve.
+C) the LM curve is relatively steep and the IS curve is relatively flat
D) the LM curve is relatively flat and the IS curve is relatively steep.
E) LM and IS curves are relatively flat

306. If initially actual production is lower than potential, then:
+A) the price level will gradually decline, shifting the LM curve downward to the right
B) the price level will gradually rise, shifting the LM curve upward to the left.
C) the price level will increase, shifting the IS curve to the right.
D) the price level is fixed at a certain value even in the long run
E) the price level will increase, shifting the IS curve to the left.

307. It is most likely that the crowding out effect occurs when:
A) the demand for money is sensitive to changes in the interest rate, and spending in the private sector is practically insensitive to it
B) both money demand and private sector spending are sensitive to interest rate movements.
C) both money demand and private sector spending are virtually insensitive to interest rate movements.
+D) the demand for money is practically insensitive to the dynamics of the interest rate, and spending in the private sector is sensitive to it
E) there is an increase in taxes in the private sector.

308. The repression effect occurs when:
A) a decrease in the money supply increases interest rates, and interest-sensitive spending in the private sector is crowded out
+B) lower income taxes cause interest rates to rise, and interest-sensitive spending in the private sector is crowded out
C) increasing taxes in the private sector reduces disposable income and spending in that sector.
D) a reduction in government spending causes a forced reduction in consumer spending.
E) an increase in government spending causes a forced reduction in consumer spending.

309. A joint equilibrium has not yet been achieved in the market for goods, money and securities if:
+A) the values ​​of ND and interest rates do not correspond to the point of intersection of the IS and LM lines
B) the values ​​of ND and interest rates correspond to the point of intersection of the lines IS and LM, but IS runs vertically and intersects LM in its horizontal part
C) the point of intersection of the IS and LM lines corresponds to i > i max
D) the point of intersection of the IS and LM lines corresponds to y I and L > M
B) S M
C) S I and L